What is the Derivative of a Vector Field in a Manifold?











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I'm studying the book "Geometric Theory of Dynamical Systems
An Introduction" - Jacob Palis, Jr. Welington de Melo.



On page 10, the author defines:




Let $M^msubset mathbb{R}^k$ be a differentiable manifold. A vector field of class $C^r$ on M is a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow mathbb{R}^k$ which associates a vector $X(p) in T_pM$ to each point $p in M$. This corresponds to a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow TM$ such that $pi X$ is the identity on $M$ where $pi$ is the natural projection from $TM$ to $M$. We denote by $mathfrak{X}^r (M)$ the set of $C^r$ vector fields on $M$.




And on page 58, comes the definition that I'm having problem




Let $X in mathfrak{X}^r(M)$ and let $pin M$ be a singularity of $X$. We say that $p$ is a hyperbolic singularity if $DX_p: T_p M rightarrow T_p M $ is a hyperbolic linear vector field, that is, $DX_p$ has no eigenvalue on the imaginary axis.




I don't understand why $DX_p: T_pM rightarrow T_pM$. My knowledge of Differential Topology just allows me to differentiate functions like $f: M rightarrow N$, implying that $Df_p: T_pM rightarrow T_{f(p)} N$, so (in my mind) the correct would be $DX_p:T_pM rightarrow T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$, so talk about eigenvalue on $DX_p$ doesn't make sense, because $DX_p$ is not a endomorphism.



The most strange part is that $T_pM$ isn't even isomorphic to $T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$. Can anyone tell me what am I confusing?










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    up vote
    11
    down vote

    favorite












    I'm studying the book "Geometric Theory of Dynamical Systems
    An Introduction" - Jacob Palis, Jr. Welington de Melo.



    On page 10, the author defines:




    Let $M^msubset mathbb{R}^k$ be a differentiable manifold. A vector field of class $C^r$ on M is a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow mathbb{R}^k$ which associates a vector $X(p) in T_pM$ to each point $p in M$. This corresponds to a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow TM$ such that $pi X$ is the identity on $M$ where $pi$ is the natural projection from $TM$ to $M$. We denote by $mathfrak{X}^r (M)$ the set of $C^r$ vector fields on $M$.




    And on page 58, comes the definition that I'm having problem




    Let $X in mathfrak{X}^r(M)$ and let $pin M$ be a singularity of $X$. We say that $p$ is a hyperbolic singularity if $DX_p: T_p M rightarrow T_p M $ is a hyperbolic linear vector field, that is, $DX_p$ has no eigenvalue on the imaginary axis.




    I don't understand why $DX_p: T_pM rightarrow T_pM$. My knowledge of Differential Topology just allows me to differentiate functions like $f: M rightarrow N$, implying that $Df_p: T_pM rightarrow T_{f(p)} N$, so (in my mind) the correct would be $DX_p:T_pM rightarrow T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$, so talk about eigenvalue on $DX_p$ doesn't make sense, because $DX_p$ is not a endomorphism.



    The most strange part is that $T_pM$ isn't even isomorphic to $T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$. Can anyone tell me what am I confusing?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      11
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      11
      down vote

      favorite











      I'm studying the book "Geometric Theory of Dynamical Systems
      An Introduction" - Jacob Palis, Jr. Welington de Melo.



      On page 10, the author defines:




      Let $M^msubset mathbb{R}^k$ be a differentiable manifold. A vector field of class $C^r$ on M is a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow mathbb{R}^k$ which associates a vector $X(p) in T_pM$ to each point $p in M$. This corresponds to a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow TM$ such that $pi X$ is the identity on $M$ where $pi$ is the natural projection from $TM$ to $M$. We denote by $mathfrak{X}^r (M)$ the set of $C^r$ vector fields on $M$.




      And on page 58, comes the definition that I'm having problem




      Let $X in mathfrak{X}^r(M)$ and let $pin M$ be a singularity of $X$. We say that $p$ is a hyperbolic singularity if $DX_p: T_p M rightarrow T_p M $ is a hyperbolic linear vector field, that is, $DX_p$ has no eigenvalue on the imaginary axis.




      I don't understand why $DX_p: T_pM rightarrow T_pM$. My knowledge of Differential Topology just allows me to differentiate functions like $f: M rightarrow N$, implying that $Df_p: T_pM rightarrow T_{f(p)} N$, so (in my mind) the correct would be $DX_p:T_pM rightarrow T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$, so talk about eigenvalue on $DX_p$ doesn't make sense, because $DX_p$ is not a endomorphism.



      The most strange part is that $T_pM$ isn't even isomorphic to $T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$. Can anyone tell me what am I confusing?










      share|cite|improve this question















      I'm studying the book "Geometric Theory of Dynamical Systems
      An Introduction" - Jacob Palis, Jr. Welington de Melo.



      On page 10, the author defines:




      Let $M^msubset mathbb{R}^k$ be a differentiable manifold. A vector field of class $C^r$ on M is a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow mathbb{R}^k$ which associates a vector $X(p) in T_pM$ to each point $p in M$. This corresponds to a $C^r$ map $X: M rightarrow TM$ such that $pi X$ is the identity on $M$ where $pi$ is the natural projection from $TM$ to $M$. We denote by $mathfrak{X}^r (M)$ the set of $C^r$ vector fields on $M$.




      And on page 58, comes the definition that I'm having problem




      Let $X in mathfrak{X}^r(M)$ and let $pin M$ be a singularity of $X$. We say that $p$ is a hyperbolic singularity if $DX_p: T_p M rightarrow T_p M $ is a hyperbolic linear vector field, that is, $DX_p$ has no eigenvalue on the imaginary axis.




      I don't understand why $DX_p: T_pM rightarrow T_pM$. My knowledge of Differential Topology just allows me to differentiate functions like $f: M rightarrow N$, implying that $Df_p: T_pM rightarrow T_{f(p)} N$, so (in my mind) the correct would be $DX_p:T_pM rightarrow T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$, so talk about eigenvalue on $DX_p$ doesn't make sense, because $DX_p$ is not a endomorphism.



      The most strange part is that $T_pM$ isn't even isomorphic to $T_{X(p)}mathbb{R}^k$. Can anyone tell me what am I confusing?







      differential-topology dynamical-systems vector-fields






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      edited Nov 19 at 0:11

























      asked Mar 23 at 20:24









      Matheus Manzatto

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          3 Answers
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          View $X$ as a smooth map $X colon M to TM$ with the property that $pi X = 1_M$ where $pi colon TM to M$ is the projection map. As $X$ is a smooth map between manifolds it has a derivative $DX_p colon T_p M to T_{X(p)} TM$ defined just like the derivative of any smooth map. This does indeed look like a problem: the vector space on the left has dimension $dim(M)$ while the one on the right has dimension $2 dim(M)$, so it doesn't make sense to speak of eigenvalues!



          But $X$ isn't just any old smooth map: we haven't used the equation $pi X = 1_M$ yet. Let us differentiate both sides of this equation using the chain rule:



          $$Dpi_{X(p)} circ DX_p = 1_{T_p M}$$



          Trivializing everything over a coordinate neighborhood of $p$, we have $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n$ and $T_p M cong mathbb{R}^n$; in this trivialization $Dpi_{X(p)}$ is just the projection map onto the first factor. Thus the equation above says that $DX_p$ has to have the form



          $$DX_p(v) = (v, Lv)$$



          for some linear transformation $L colon mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$. It is a fairly standard abuse of notation to think of this object $L$ as "the derivative" of $X$, even though the derivative is really $(I, L)$ where $I$ is the identity.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Fantastic answer, thanks.
            – Matheus Manzatto
            Mar 23 at 21:36






          • 1




            The first time I that read it was very clear, but now I'm facing a mortal doubt. Your linear transformation $L$ depends on the trivializations that makes $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $T_pM cong mathbb{R}^n$. How do you know that $L$ be hyperbolic doesn't depend on the trivializations of its construction.
            – Matheus Manzatto
            Mar 23 at 23:22








          • 1




            @MatheusManzatto Note that we must trivialize $TM$ and $TTM$ over the same coordinate neighborhood $U$ of $p$ to guarantee that $Dpi_{X(p)}$ and $DX_p$ have the from I described. If we trivialize over a different coordinate neighborhood $U'$, then the corresponding $L'$ will be the conjugate of $L$ by the derivative of the transition map between the charts for $U$ and $U'$. Conjugation preserves diagonalizability, eigenvalues, etc. so everything is fine.
            – Paul Siegel
            Mar 24 at 0:55


















          up vote
          5
          down vote













          It is possible to minorly adapt the answer by Paul Siegel in order to avoid trivializations. We just use the natural split over a point $(p,0)$ of $T_{(p,0)}TM$.



          Again, a vector field is a map $X: M to TM$ such that $pi circ X=mathrm{Id}$.



          If $X(p)=0$, we have that $dX_p:T_pM to T_{(p,0)}TM simeq T^h_{(p,0)}TMoplus T^v_{(p,0)}TM,$
          where
          $$T^h_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset M},$$
          $$T^v_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset T_{p}M}.$$



          Note that the existence of such a natural decomposition uses heavily the fact that $X(p)=0$, otherwise we would need to rely on a metric (more directly, a connection) on $M$ to furnish it (for more information, see here).



          There is a natural isomorphism $i: T^v_{(p,0)}TM to T_pM $ (It is similar to the isomorphism that exists from $T_pV to V$, where $V$ is a vector space). The "derivative" which the text is alluding to is then
          $$DX_p=iota circ pi_2 circ dX_p.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer






























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            Since $M$ is a manifold, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ and a chart $UtoBbb R^m$. In particular, it determines an isomorphism $T_pMcongBbb R^m$, and the tangent manifold over $U$ is isomorphic to the trivial fibration $Utimes T_pM$. (We can flatten it locally.)



            So, locally (i.e., over $U$) we can regard the vector field $X$ as $Uto T_pM$.

            (We could as well write $UtoBbb R^m$ if that's clearer.)

            Finally, as $T_pM$ is a linear space, its tangent space (on any point) is identified with itself.






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              3 Answers
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              3 Answers
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              active

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              active

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              up vote
              7
              down vote



              accepted










              View $X$ as a smooth map $X colon M to TM$ with the property that $pi X = 1_M$ where $pi colon TM to M$ is the projection map. As $X$ is a smooth map between manifolds it has a derivative $DX_p colon T_p M to T_{X(p)} TM$ defined just like the derivative of any smooth map. This does indeed look like a problem: the vector space on the left has dimension $dim(M)$ while the one on the right has dimension $2 dim(M)$, so it doesn't make sense to speak of eigenvalues!



              But $X$ isn't just any old smooth map: we haven't used the equation $pi X = 1_M$ yet. Let us differentiate both sides of this equation using the chain rule:



              $$Dpi_{X(p)} circ DX_p = 1_{T_p M}$$



              Trivializing everything over a coordinate neighborhood of $p$, we have $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n$ and $T_p M cong mathbb{R}^n$; in this trivialization $Dpi_{X(p)}$ is just the projection map onto the first factor. Thus the equation above says that $DX_p$ has to have the form



              $$DX_p(v) = (v, Lv)$$



              for some linear transformation $L colon mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$. It is a fairly standard abuse of notation to think of this object $L$ as "the derivative" of $X$, even though the derivative is really $(I, L)$ where $I$ is the identity.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Fantastic answer, thanks.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 21:36






              • 1




                The first time I that read it was very clear, but now I'm facing a mortal doubt. Your linear transformation $L$ depends on the trivializations that makes $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $T_pM cong mathbb{R}^n$. How do you know that $L$ be hyperbolic doesn't depend on the trivializations of its construction.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 23:22








              • 1




                @MatheusManzatto Note that we must trivialize $TM$ and $TTM$ over the same coordinate neighborhood $U$ of $p$ to guarantee that $Dpi_{X(p)}$ and $DX_p$ have the from I described. If we trivialize over a different coordinate neighborhood $U'$, then the corresponding $L'$ will be the conjugate of $L$ by the derivative of the transition map between the charts for $U$ and $U'$. Conjugation preserves diagonalizability, eigenvalues, etc. so everything is fine.
                – Paul Siegel
                Mar 24 at 0:55















              up vote
              7
              down vote



              accepted










              View $X$ as a smooth map $X colon M to TM$ with the property that $pi X = 1_M$ where $pi colon TM to M$ is the projection map. As $X$ is a smooth map between manifolds it has a derivative $DX_p colon T_p M to T_{X(p)} TM$ defined just like the derivative of any smooth map. This does indeed look like a problem: the vector space on the left has dimension $dim(M)$ while the one on the right has dimension $2 dim(M)$, so it doesn't make sense to speak of eigenvalues!



              But $X$ isn't just any old smooth map: we haven't used the equation $pi X = 1_M$ yet. Let us differentiate both sides of this equation using the chain rule:



              $$Dpi_{X(p)} circ DX_p = 1_{T_p M}$$



              Trivializing everything over a coordinate neighborhood of $p$, we have $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n$ and $T_p M cong mathbb{R}^n$; in this trivialization $Dpi_{X(p)}$ is just the projection map onto the first factor. Thus the equation above says that $DX_p$ has to have the form



              $$DX_p(v) = (v, Lv)$$



              for some linear transformation $L colon mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$. It is a fairly standard abuse of notation to think of this object $L$ as "the derivative" of $X$, even though the derivative is really $(I, L)$ where $I$ is the identity.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • Fantastic answer, thanks.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 21:36






              • 1




                The first time I that read it was very clear, but now I'm facing a mortal doubt. Your linear transformation $L$ depends on the trivializations that makes $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $T_pM cong mathbb{R}^n$. How do you know that $L$ be hyperbolic doesn't depend on the trivializations of its construction.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 23:22








              • 1




                @MatheusManzatto Note that we must trivialize $TM$ and $TTM$ over the same coordinate neighborhood $U$ of $p$ to guarantee that $Dpi_{X(p)}$ and $DX_p$ have the from I described. If we trivialize over a different coordinate neighborhood $U'$, then the corresponding $L'$ will be the conjugate of $L$ by the derivative of the transition map between the charts for $U$ and $U'$. Conjugation preserves diagonalizability, eigenvalues, etc. so everything is fine.
                – Paul Siegel
                Mar 24 at 0:55













              up vote
              7
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              7
              down vote



              accepted






              View $X$ as a smooth map $X colon M to TM$ with the property that $pi X = 1_M$ where $pi colon TM to M$ is the projection map. As $X$ is a smooth map between manifolds it has a derivative $DX_p colon T_p M to T_{X(p)} TM$ defined just like the derivative of any smooth map. This does indeed look like a problem: the vector space on the left has dimension $dim(M)$ while the one on the right has dimension $2 dim(M)$, so it doesn't make sense to speak of eigenvalues!



              But $X$ isn't just any old smooth map: we haven't used the equation $pi X = 1_M$ yet. Let us differentiate both sides of this equation using the chain rule:



              $$Dpi_{X(p)} circ DX_p = 1_{T_p M}$$



              Trivializing everything over a coordinate neighborhood of $p$, we have $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n$ and $T_p M cong mathbb{R}^n$; in this trivialization $Dpi_{X(p)}$ is just the projection map onto the first factor. Thus the equation above says that $DX_p$ has to have the form



              $$DX_p(v) = (v, Lv)$$



              for some linear transformation $L colon mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$. It is a fairly standard abuse of notation to think of this object $L$ as "the derivative" of $X$, even though the derivative is really $(I, L)$ where $I$ is the identity.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              View $X$ as a smooth map $X colon M to TM$ with the property that $pi X = 1_M$ where $pi colon TM to M$ is the projection map. As $X$ is a smooth map between manifolds it has a derivative $DX_p colon T_p M to T_{X(p)} TM$ defined just like the derivative of any smooth map. This does indeed look like a problem: the vector space on the left has dimension $dim(M)$ while the one on the right has dimension $2 dim(M)$, so it doesn't make sense to speak of eigenvalues!



              But $X$ isn't just any old smooth map: we haven't used the equation $pi X = 1_M$ yet. Let us differentiate both sides of this equation using the chain rule:



              $$Dpi_{X(p)} circ DX_p = 1_{T_p M}$$



              Trivializing everything over a coordinate neighborhood of $p$, we have $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n$ and $T_p M cong mathbb{R}^n$; in this trivialization $Dpi_{X(p)}$ is just the projection map onto the first factor. Thus the equation above says that $DX_p$ has to have the form



              $$DX_p(v) = (v, Lv)$$



              for some linear transformation $L colon mathbb{R}^n to mathbb{R}^n$. It is a fairly standard abuse of notation to think of this object $L$ as "the derivative" of $X$, even though the derivative is really $(I, L)$ where $I$ is the identity.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Mar 23 at 21:30









              Paul Siegel

              5,7531942




              5,7531942












              • Fantastic answer, thanks.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 21:36






              • 1




                The first time I that read it was very clear, but now I'm facing a mortal doubt. Your linear transformation $L$ depends on the trivializations that makes $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $T_pM cong mathbb{R}^n$. How do you know that $L$ be hyperbolic doesn't depend on the trivializations of its construction.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 23:22








              • 1




                @MatheusManzatto Note that we must trivialize $TM$ and $TTM$ over the same coordinate neighborhood $U$ of $p$ to guarantee that $Dpi_{X(p)}$ and $DX_p$ have the from I described. If we trivialize over a different coordinate neighborhood $U'$, then the corresponding $L'$ will be the conjugate of $L$ by the derivative of the transition map between the charts for $U$ and $U'$. Conjugation preserves diagonalizability, eigenvalues, etc. so everything is fine.
                – Paul Siegel
                Mar 24 at 0:55


















              • Fantastic answer, thanks.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 21:36






              • 1




                The first time I that read it was very clear, but now I'm facing a mortal doubt. Your linear transformation $L$ depends on the trivializations that makes $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $T_pM cong mathbb{R}^n$. How do you know that $L$ be hyperbolic doesn't depend on the trivializations of its construction.
                – Matheus Manzatto
                Mar 23 at 23:22








              • 1




                @MatheusManzatto Note that we must trivialize $TM$ and $TTM$ over the same coordinate neighborhood $U$ of $p$ to guarantee that $Dpi_{X(p)}$ and $DX_p$ have the from I described. If we trivialize over a different coordinate neighborhood $U'$, then the corresponding $L'$ will be the conjugate of $L$ by the derivative of the transition map between the charts for $U$ and $U'$. Conjugation preserves diagonalizability, eigenvalues, etc. so everything is fine.
                – Paul Siegel
                Mar 24 at 0:55
















              Fantastic answer, thanks.
              – Matheus Manzatto
              Mar 23 at 21:36




              Fantastic answer, thanks.
              – Matheus Manzatto
              Mar 23 at 21:36




              1




              1




              The first time I that read it was very clear, but now I'm facing a mortal doubt. Your linear transformation $L$ depends on the trivializations that makes $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $T_pM cong mathbb{R}^n$. How do you know that $L$ be hyperbolic doesn't depend on the trivializations of its construction.
              – Matheus Manzatto
              Mar 23 at 23:22






              The first time I that read it was very clear, but now I'm facing a mortal doubt. Your linear transformation $L$ depends on the trivializations that makes $T_{X(p)} TM cong mathbb{R}^{2n}$ and $T_pM cong mathbb{R}^n$. How do you know that $L$ be hyperbolic doesn't depend on the trivializations of its construction.
              – Matheus Manzatto
              Mar 23 at 23:22






              1




              1




              @MatheusManzatto Note that we must trivialize $TM$ and $TTM$ over the same coordinate neighborhood $U$ of $p$ to guarantee that $Dpi_{X(p)}$ and $DX_p$ have the from I described. If we trivialize over a different coordinate neighborhood $U'$, then the corresponding $L'$ will be the conjugate of $L$ by the derivative of the transition map between the charts for $U$ and $U'$. Conjugation preserves diagonalizability, eigenvalues, etc. so everything is fine.
              – Paul Siegel
              Mar 24 at 0:55




              @MatheusManzatto Note that we must trivialize $TM$ and $TTM$ over the same coordinate neighborhood $U$ of $p$ to guarantee that $Dpi_{X(p)}$ and $DX_p$ have the from I described. If we trivialize over a different coordinate neighborhood $U'$, then the corresponding $L'$ will be the conjugate of $L$ by the derivative of the transition map between the charts for $U$ and $U'$. Conjugation preserves diagonalizability, eigenvalues, etc. so everything is fine.
              – Paul Siegel
              Mar 24 at 0:55










              up vote
              5
              down vote













              It is possible to minorly adapt the answer by Paul Siegel in order to avoid trivializations. We just use the natural split over a point $(p,0)$ of $T_{(p,0)}TM$.



              Again, a vector field is a map $X: M to TM$ such that $pi circ X=mathrm{Id}$.



              If $X(p)=0$, we have that $dX_p:T_pM to T_{(p,0)}TM simeq T^h_{(p,0)}TMoplus T^v_{(p,0)}TM,$
              where
              $$T^h_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset M},$$
              $$T^v_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset T_{p}M}.$$



              Note that the existence of such a natural decomposition uses heavily the fact that $X(p)=0$, otherwise we would need to rely on a metric (more directly, a connection) on $M$ to furnish it (for more information, see here).



              There is a natural isomorphism $i: T^v_{(p,0)}TM to T_pM $ (It is similar to the isomorphism that exists from $T_pV to V$, where $V$ is a vector space). The "derivative" which the text is alluding to is then
              $$DX_p=iota circ pi_2 circ dX_p.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                5
                down vote













                It is possible to minorly adapt the answer by Paul Siegel in order to avoid trivializations. We just use the natural split over a point $(p,0)$ of $T_{(p,0)}TM$.



                Again, a vector field is a map $X: M to TM$ such that $pi circ X=mathrm{Id}$.



                If $X(p)=0$, we have that $dX_p:T_pM to T_{(p,0)}TM simeq T^h_{(p,0)}TMoplus T^v_{(p,0)}TM,$
                where
                $$T^h_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset M},$$
                $$T^v_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset T_{p}M}.$$



                Note that the existence of such a natural decomposition uses heavily the fact that $X(p)=0$, otherwise we would need to rely on a metric (more directly, a connection) on $M$ to furnish it (for more information, see here).



                There is a natural isomorphism $i: T^v_{(p,0)}TM to T_pM $ (It is similar to the isomorphism that exists from $T_pV to V$, where $V$ is a vector space). The "derivative" which the text is alluding to is then
                $$DX_p=iota circ pi_2 circ dX_p.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  5
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  5
                  down vote









                  It is possible to minorly adapt the answer by Paul Siegel in order to avoid trivializations. We just use the natural split over a point $(p,0)$ of $T_{(p,0)}TM$.



                  Again, a vector field is a map $X: M to TM$ such that $pi circ X=mathrm{Id}$.



                  If $X(p)=0$, we have that $dX_p:T_pM to T_{(p,0)}TM simeq T^h_{(p,0)}TMoplus T^v_{(p,0)}TM,$
                  where
                  $$T^h_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset M},$$
                  $$T^v_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset T_{p}M}.$$



                  Note that the existence of such a natural decomposition uses heavily the fact that $X(p)=0$, otherwise we would need to rely on a metric (more directly, a connection) on $M$ to furnish it (for more information, see here).



                  There is a natural isomorphism $i: T^v_{(p,0)}TM to T_pM $ (It is similar to the isomorphism that exists from $T_pV to V$, where $V$ is a vector space). The "derivative" which the text is alluding to is then
                  $$DX_p=iota circ pi_2 circ dX_p.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  It is possible to minorly adapt the answer by Paul Siegel in order to avoid trivializations. We just use the natural split over a point $(p,0)$ of $T_{(p,0)}TM$.



                  Again, a vector field is a map $X: M to TM$ such that $pi circ X=mathrm{Id}$.



                  If $X(p)=0$, we have that $dX_p:T_pM to T_{(p,0)}TM simeq T^h_{(p,0)}TMoplus T^v_{(p,0)}TM,$
                  where
                  $$T^h_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset M},$$
                  $$T^v_{(p,0)}TM:={dot{gamma}(0) mid gamma text{ is a curve through $(p,0)$ such that } gamma subset T_{p}M}.$$



                  Note that the existence of such a natural decomposition uses heavily the fact that $X(p)=0$, otherwise we would need to rely on a metric (more directly, a connection) on $M$ to furnish it (for more information, see here).



                  There is a natural isomorphism $i: T^v_{(p,0)}TM to T_pM $ (It is similar to the isomorphism that exists from $T_pV to V$, where $V$ is a vector space). The "derivative" which the text is alluding to is then
                  $$DX_p=iota circ pi_2 circ dX_p.$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Mar 29 at 3:08

























                  answered Mar 28 at 2:40









                  Aloizio Macedo

                  23.3k23485




                  23.3k23485






















                      up vote
                      4
                      down vote













                      Since $M$ is a manifold, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ and a chart $UtoBbb R^m$. In particular, it determines an isomorphism $T_pMcongBbb R^m$, and the tangent manifold over $U$ is isomorphic to the trivial fibration $Utimes T_pM$. (We can flatten it locally.)



                      So, locally (i.e., over $U$) we can regard the vector field $X$ as $Uto T_pM$.

                      (We could as well write $UtoBbb R^m$ if that's clearer.)

                      Finally, as $T_pM$ is a linear space, its tangent space (on any point) is identified with itself.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        4
                        down vote













                        Since $M$ is a manifold, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ and a chart $UtoBbb R^m$. In particular, it determines an isomorphism $T_pMcongBbb R^m$, and the tangent manifold over $U$ is isomorphic to the trivial fibration $Utimes T_pM$. (We can flatten it locally.)



                        So, locally (i.e., over $U$) we can regard the vector field $X$ as $Uto T_pM$.

                        (We could as well write $UtoBbb R^m$ if that's clearer.)

                        Finally, as $T_pM$ is a linear space, its tangent space (on any point) is identified with itself.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          4
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          4
                          down vote









                          Since $M$ is a manifold, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ and a chart $UtoBbb R^m$. In particular, it determines an isomorphism $T_pMcongBbb R^m$, and the tangent manifold over $U$ is isomorphic to the trivial fibration $Utimes T_pM$. (We can flatten it locally.)



                          So, locally (i.e., over $U$) we can regard the vector field $X$ as $Uto T_pM$.

                          (We could as well write $UtoBbb R^m$ if that's clearer.)

                          Finally, as $T_pM$ is a linear space, its tangent space (on any point) is identified with itself.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Since $M$ is a manifold, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ and a chart $UtoBbb R^m$. In particular, it determines an isomorphism $T_pMcongBbb R^m$, and the tangent manifold over $U$ is isomorphic to the trivial fibration $Utimes T_pM$. (We can flatten it locally.)



                          So, locally (i.e., over $U$) we can regard the vector field $X$ as $Uto T_pM$.

                          (We could as well write $UtoBbb R^m$ if that's clearer.)

                          Finally, as $T_pM$ is a linear space, its tangent space (on any point) is identified with itself.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Mar 23 at 21:11









                          Berci

                          59.2k23672




                          59.2k23672






























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