Diagonalization without computing the inverse











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Is there a way to find A = PDP^-1 but without computing the inverse of P?



If PP^-1equal to identity matrix, can I say A = ID ?










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  • It will always be true that $;PP^{-1}=I;$ , so that should be a hint for you that no: you can't definitely say $;A=I;$ as matrix multiplication isn't, in general, commutative. You can diagonalize $;A;$ though if it is diagonalizable and if you know the matrix's eigenvalues, without any need of $;P;$ or of its inverse.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 0:45










  • Given a diagonalizable matrix $A$, it is possible to compute both $P$ and $D$ without computing $P^{-1}$. Is that what you're trying to do?
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 19 at 0:51










  • @Omnomnomnom Yes. Now I understand after DonAntonio's comment.
    – myadeniboy
    Nov 19 at 1:20















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Is there a way to find A = PDP^-1 but without computing the inverse of P?



If PP^-1equal to identity matrix, can I say A = ID ?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • It will always be true that $;PP^{-1}=I;$ , so that should be a hint for you that no: you can't definitely say $;A=I;$ as matrix multiplication isn't, in general, commutative. You can diagonalize $;A;$ though if it is diagonalizable and if you know the matrix's eigenvalues, without any need of $;P;$ or of its inverse.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 0:45










  • Given a diagonalizable matrix $A$, it is possible to compute both $P$ and $D$ without computing $P^{-1}$. Is that what you're trying to do?
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 19 at 0:51










  • @Omnomnomnom Yes. Now I understand after DonAntonio's comment.
    – myadeniboy
    Nov 19 at 1:20













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Is there a way to find A = PDP^-1 but without computing the inverse of P?



If PP^-1equal to identity matrix, can I say A = ID ?










share|cite|improve this question













Is there a way to find A = PDP^-1 but without computing the inverse of P?



If PP^-1equal to identity matrix, can I say A = ID ?







matrices inverse diagonalization






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share|cite|improve this question











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share|cite|improve this question










asked Nov 19 at 0:40









myadeniboy

11




11












  • It will always be true that $;PP^{-1}=I;$ , so that should be a hint for you that no: you can't definitely say $;A=I;$ as matrix multiplication isn't, in general, commutative. You can diagonalize $;A;$ though if it is diagonalizable and if you know the matrix's eigenvalues, without any need of $;P;$ or of its inverse.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 0:45










  • Given a diagonalizable matrix $A$, it is possible to compute both $P$ and $D$ without computing $P^{-1}$. Is that what you're trying to do?
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 19 at 0:51










  • @Omnomnomnom Yes. Now I understand after DonAntonio's comment.
    – myadeniboy
    Nov 19 at 1:20


















  • It will always be true that $;PP^{-1}=I;$ , so that should be a hint for you that no: you can't definitely say $;A=I;$ as matrix multiplication isn't, in general, commutative. You can diagonalize $;A;$ though if it is diagonalizable and if you know the matrix's eigenvalues, without any need of $;P;$ or of its inverse.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 0:45










  • Given a diagonalizable matrix $A$, it is possible to compute both $P$ and $D$ without computing $P^{-1}$. Is that what you're trying to do?
    – Omnomnomnom
    Nov 19 at 0:51










  • @Omnomnomnom Yes. Now I understand after DonAntonio's comment.
    – myadeniboy
    Nov 19 at 1:20
















It will always be true that $;PP^{-1}=I;$ , so that should be a hint for you that no: you can't definitely say $;A=I;$ as matrix multiplication isn't, in general, commutative. You can diagonalize $;A;$ though if it is diagonalizable and if you know the matrix's eigenvalues, without any need of $;P;$ or of its inverse.
– DonAntonio
Nov 19 at 0:45




It will always be true that $;PP^{-1}=I;$ , so that should be a hint for you that no: you can't definitely say $;A=I;$ as matrix multiplication isn't, in general, commutative. You can diagonalize $;A;$ though if it is diagonalizable and if you know the matrix's eigenvalues, without any need of $;P;$ or of its inverse.
– DonAntonio
Nov 19 at 0:45












Given a diagonalizable matrix $A$, it is possible to compute both $P$ and $D$ without computing $P^{-1}$. Is that what you're trying to do?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 19 at 0:51




Given a diagonalizable matrix $A$, it is possible to compute both $P$ and $D$ without computing $P^{-1}$. Is that what you're trying to do?
– Omnomnomnom
Nov 19 at 0:51












@Omnomnomnom Yes. Now I understand after DonAntonio's comment.
– myadeniboy
Nov 19 at 1:20




@Omnomnomnom Yes. Now I understand after DonAntonio's comment.
– myadeniboy
Nov 19 at 1:20










1 Answer
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Calculate the normalised eigenvectors of your matrix and make these eigenvectors the columns of a new matrix U.
Now calculate U^T * P * U using matrix multiplication and then you will obtain a diagonalised matrix with the eigenvalues of P as the entries on the diagonal.



NB: U^T is U-transpose.






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    No need to normalize eigenvectors, but much more important: in general, multiplying by the traspose won't diagonalize a matrix even if its diagonalizable, so the above is incorrect.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 1:16











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up vote
0
down vote













Calculate the normalised eigenvectors of your matrix and make these eigenvectors the columns of a new matrix U.
Now calculate U^T * P * U using matrix multiplication and then you will obtain a diagonalised matrix with the eigenvalues of P as the entries on the diagonal.



NB: U^T is U-transpose.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    No need to normalize eigenvectors, but much more important: in general, multiplying by the traspose won't diagonalize a matrix even if its diagonalizable, so the above is incorrect.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 1:16















up vote
0
down vote













Calculate the normalised eigenvectors of your matrix and make these eigenvectors the columns of a new matrix U.
Now calculate U^T * P * U using matrix multiplication and then you will obtain a diagonalised matrix with the eigenvalues of P as the entries on the diagonal.



NB: U^T is U-transpose.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    No need to normalize eigenvectors, but much more important: in general, multiplying by the traspose won't diagonalize a matrix even if its diagonalizable, so the above is incorrect.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 1:16













up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Calculate the normalised eigenvectors of your matrix and make these eigenvectors the columns of a new matrix U.
Now calculate U^T * P * U using matrix multiplication and then you will obtain a diagonalised matrix with the eigenvalues of P as the entries on the diagonal.



NB: U^T is U-transpose.






share|cite|improve this answer












Calculate the normalised eigenvectors of your matrix and make these eigenvectors the columns of a new matrix U.
Now calculate U^T * P * U using matrix multiplication and then you will obtain a diagonalised matrix with the eigenvalues of P as the entries on the diagonal.



NB: U^T is U-transpose.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 19 at 1:07









Anteater23

62




62








  • 1




    No need to normalize eigenvectors, but much more important: in general, multiplying by the traspose won't diagonalize a matrix even if its diagonalizable, so the above is incorrect.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 1:16














  • 1




    No need to normalize eigenvectors, but much more important: in general, multiplying by the traspose won't diagonalize a matrix even if its diagonalizable, so the above is incorrect.
    – DonAntonio
    Nov 19 at 1:16








1




1




No need to normalize eigenvectors, but much more important: in general, multiplying by the traspose won't diagonalize a matrix even if its diagonalizable, so the above is incorrect.
– DonAntonio
Nov 19 at 1:16




No need to normalize eigenvectors, but much more important: in general, multiplying by the traspose won't diagonalize a matrix even if its diagonalizable, so the above is incorrect.
– DonAntonio
Nov 19 at 1:16


















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