Derangements $p$ of $1,2,dots,n,n+1$ such that $n+1$ doesn't go to $n$












4












$begingroup$


Recall that the number or Derangements of $1,2,dots,n$ is a permutation $p$ such that $p(i) neq i$ for all $i$. We can express it with the recurrence $D_n=(n-1)(D_{n-1}+D_{n-2})$ or by the closed formula $$D_n =sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i frac{n!}{i!}$$



Now we consider the number of permutations of $1,2,dots, n,n+1$ such that for all $1leq i leq n$ (not $n+1$), $p(i)neq i$, but also $p(n+1) neq n$. We need to express this number using $D_n$s.



I was thinking of first counting the number of permutations without the additional condition $p(n+1) neq n$ and received using inclusion-exclusion



$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r binom{n}{r}(n+1-r)! = sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{r!}(n+1-r) =$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- sum_{r=1}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{(r-1)!}=$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- nsum_{r=0}^{n-1} (-1)^{r+1} frac{(n-1)!}{r!}=$$
$$=D_{n+1}+nD_{n-1}$$



Now we need to subtract from this the number of permutations when $p(n+1)=n$, which I wasn't able to count.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ with $p(n+1)=n$ is simply the number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n}$; compose any such permutation with the transposition $(n n+1)$ yields a bijection between these sets of permutations.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:42












  • $begingroup$
    But in our case, we count the permutations with $p(i)neq i$, are you sure there is such bijection? Because when $n+1$ takes $n$'s place, we dont have to worry about $p(n) neq n$ anymore.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:46










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, so you mean to count the number of derangements with $p(n+1)neq n$? I only read your question at a glance, and commented on the last sentence.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:49










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I didn't say exactly derangements because that would imply $p(n+1)neq n+1$, but it is very similar.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:50










  • $begingroup$
    In a derangement, $n+1$ is as likely to go to $n$ as to any given element of ${1,ldots,n}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 15 '18 at 10:30
















4












$begingroup$


Recall that the number or Derangements of $1,2,dots,n$ is a permutation $p$ such that $p(i) neq i$ for all $i$. We can express it with the recurrence $D_n=(n-1)(D_{n-1}+D_{n-2})$ or by the closed formula $$D_n =sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i frac{n!}{i!}$$



Now we consider the number of permutations of $1,2,dots, n,n+1$ such that for all $1leq i leq n$ (not $n+1$), $p(i)neq i$, but also $p(n+1) neq n$. We need to express this number using $D_n$s.



I was thinking of first counting the number of permutations without the additional condition $p(n+1) neq n$ and received using inclusion-exclusion



$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r binom{n}{r}(n+1-r)! = sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{r!}(n+1-r) =$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- sum_{r=1}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{(r-1)!}=$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- nsum_{r=0}^{n-1} (-1)^{r+1} frac{(n-1)!}{r!}=$$
$$=D_{n+1}+nD_{n-1}$$



Now we need to subtract from this the number of permutations when $p(n+1)=n$, which I wasn't able to count.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ with $p(n+1)=n$ is simply the number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n}$; compose any such permutation with the transposition $(n n+1)$ yields a bijection between these sets of permutations.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:42












  • $begingroup$
    But in our case, we count the permutations with $p(i)neq i$, are you sure there is such bijection? Because when $n+1$ takes $n$'s place, we dont have to worry about $p(n) neq n$ anymore.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:46










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, so you mean to count the number of derangements with $p(n+1)neq n$? I only read your question at a glance, and commented on the last sentence.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:49










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I didn't say exactly derangements because that would imply $p(n+1)neq n+1$, but it is very similar.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:50










  • $begingroup$
    In a derangement, $n+1$ is as likely to go to $n$ as to any given element of ${1,ldots,n}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 15 '18 at 10:30














4












4








4


2



$begingroup$


Recall that the number or Derangements of $1,2,dots,n$ is a permutation $p$ such that $p(i) neq i$ for all $i$. We can express it with the recurrence $D_n=(n-1)(D_{n-1}+D_{n-2})$ or by the closed formula $$D_n =sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i frac{n!}{i!}$$



Now we consider the number of permutations of $1,2,dots, n,n+1$ such that for all $1leq i leq n$ (not $n+1$), $p(i)neq i$, but also $p(n+1) neq n$. We need to express this number using $D_n$s.



I was thinking of first counting the number of permutations without the additional condition $p(n+1) neq n$ and received using inclusion-exclusion



$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r binom{n}{r}(n+1-r)! = sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{r!}(n+1-r) =$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- sum_{r=1}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{(r-1)!}=$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- nsum_{r=0}^{n-1} (-1)^{r+1} frac{(n-1)!}{r!}=$$
$$=D_{n+1}+nD_{n-1}$$



Now we need to subtract from this the number of permutations when $p(n+1)=n$, which I wasn't able to count.



Thanks in advance










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Recall that the number or Derangements of $1,2,dots,n$ is a permutation $p$ such that $p(i) neq i$ for all $i$. We can express it with the recurrence $D_n=(n-1)(D_{n-1}+D_{n-2})$ or by the closed formula $$D_n =sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i frac{n!}{i!}$$



Now we consider the number of permutations of $1,2,dots, n,n+1$ such that for all $1leq i leq n$ (not $n+1$), $p(i)neq i$, but also $p(n+1) neq n$. We need to express this number using $D_n$s.



I was thinking of first counting the number of permutations without the additional condition $p(n+1) neq n$ and received using inclusion-exclusion



$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r binom{n}{r}(n+1-r)! = sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{r!}(n+1-r) =$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- sum_{r=1}^n (-1)^r frac{n!}{(r-1)!}=$$
$$sum_{r=0}^n (-1)^r frac{(n+1)!}{r!}- nsum_{r=0}^{n-1} (-1)^{r+1} frac{(n-1)!}{r!}=$$
$$=D_{n+1}+nD_{n-1}$$



Now we need to subtract from this the number of permutations when $p(n+1)=n$, which I wasn't able to count.



Thanks in advance







combinatorics permutations inclusion-exclusion






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 15 '18 at 12:49







Theorem

















asked Dec 15 '18 at 9:38









TheoremTheorem

1,068513




1,068513












  • $begingroup$
    The number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ with $p(n+1)=n$ is simply the number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n}$; compose any such permutation with the transposition $(n n+1)$ yields a bijection between these sets of permutations.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:42












  • $begingroup$
    But in our case, we count the permutations with $p(i)neq i$, are you sure there is such bijection? Because when $n+1$ takes $n$'s place, we dont have to worry about $p(n) neq n$ anymore.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:46










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, so you mean to count the number of derangements with $p(n+1)neq n$? I only read your question at a glance, and commented on the last sentence.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:49










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I didn't say exactly derangements because that would imply $p(n+1)neq n+1$, but it is very similar.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:50










  • $begingroup$
    In a derangement, $n+1$ is as likely to go to $n$ as to any given element of ${1,ldots,n}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 15 '18 at 10:30


















  • $begingroup$
    The number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ with $p(n+1)=n$ is simply the number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n}$; compose any such permutation with the transposition $(n n+1)$ yields a bijection between these sets of permutations.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:42












  • $begingroup$
    But in our case, we count the permutations with $p(i)neq i$, are you sure there is such bijection? Because when $n+1$ takes $n$'s place, we dont have to worry about $p(n) neq n$ anymore.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:46










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, so you mean to count the number of derangements with $p(n+1)neq n$? I only read your question at a glance, and commented on the last sentence.
    $endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:49










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I didn't say exactly derangements because that would imply $p(n+1)neq n+1$, but it is very similar.
    $endgroup$
    – Theorem
    Dec 15 '18 at 9:50










  • $begingroup$
    In a derangement, $n+1$ is as likely to go to $n$ as to any given element of ${1,ldots,n}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 15 '18 at 10:30
















$begingroup$
The number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ with $p(n+1)=n$ is simply the number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n}$; compose any such permutation with the transposition $(n n+1)$ yields a bijection between these sets of permutations.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Dec 15 '18 at 9:42






$begingroup$
The number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ with $p(n+1)=n$ is simply the number of permutations of ${1,ldots,n}$; compose any such permutation with the transposition $(n n+1)$ yields a bijection between these sets of permutations.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Dec 15 '18 at 9:42














$begingroup$
But in our case, we count the permutations with $p(i)neq i$, are you sure there is such bijection? Because when $n+1$ takes $n$'s place, we dont have to worry about $p(n) neq n$ anymore.
$endgroup$
– Theorem
Dec 15 '18 at 9:46




$begingroup$
But in our case, we count the permutations with $p(i)neq i$, are you sure there is such bijection? Because when $n+1$ takes $n$'s place, we dont have to worry about $p(n) neq n$ anymore.
$endgroup$
– Theorem
Dec 15 '18 at 9:46












$begingroup$
Ah, so you mean to count the number of derangements with $p(n+1)neq n$? I only read your question at a glance, and commented on the last sentence.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Dec 15 '18 at 9:49




$begingroup$
Ah, so you mean to count the number of derangements with $p(n+1)neq n$? I only read your question at a glance, and commented on the last sentence.
$endgroup$
– Servaes
Dec 15 '18 at 9:49












$begingroup$
Yes, I didn't say exactly derangements because that would imply $p(n+1)neq n+1$, but it is very similar.
$endgroup$
– Theorem
Dec 15 '18 at 9:50




$begingroup$
Yes, I didn't say exactly derangements because that would imply $p(n+1)neq n+1$, but it is very similar.
$endgroup$
– Theorem
Dec 15 '18 at 9:50












$begingroup$
In a derangement, $n+1$ is as likely to go to $n$ as to any given element of ${1,ldots,n}$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 15 '18 at 10:30




$begingroup$
In a derangement, $n+1$ is as likely to go to $n$ as to any given element of ${1,ldots,n}$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 15 '18 at 10:30










2 Answers
2






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1












$begingroup$

Call a permutation $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ good if $sigma(i)neq i$ for all $1leq ileq n$ and and $sigma(n+1)neq n$.



Let $sigma$ be a good permutation, and let $a:=sigma(n+1)$ and $b:=sigma^{-1}(n+1)$, so that $aneq n$. If $aneq b$ then the permutation $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $n+1$ and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}$. If $a=b$ then $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $a$ and $n+1$, and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$.



Conversely, for any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}$ and any $ain{1,ldots,n+1}$ with $aneq n$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good. Also, for any $ain{1,ldots,n-1}$ and any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good.



This shows that the number of good permutations is $nD_n+(n-1)D_{n-1}$, where $D_m$ denotes the number of derangements of ${1,ldots,m}$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    These kind of problems (permutations with forbidden positions) can be elegantly solved using rook numbers/polynomials:




    Let $P subseteq {1, ldots, n}^2$ be the diagram of forbidden positions. The number of permutations $p in S_n$ such that $(i,p(i)) notin P$ for all $i = 1, ldots, n$ is given by
    $$sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k$$
    where $r_k$ is the number of ways to place $k$ nonattacking rooks on the diagram $P$.




    In our case the diagram e.g. for $n=4$ (the board is then $5 times 5$) is given by:



    enter image description here



    $0$ rooks can be placed in one way on $P$. To place $k$ rooks on $P$, one can place a rook on one of the two positions in the last column of $P$ in $2$ ways and then place $k-1$ rooks on $n-1$ remaining positions, or one can just place all $k$ rooks in the first $n-1$ columns, ignoring the last one. Hence
    $$r_k = begin{cases}
    1, text{ if }k=0\
    2{n-1 choose k-1} + {n-1 choose k}, text{ if }k ge 1
    end{cases} = begin{cases}
    1, text{ if }k=0\
    {n choose k} + {n-1 choose k-1}, text{ if }k ge 1
    end{cases}$$



    Therefore the result is
    begin{align}
    sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k &= sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n choose k} + n! + sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n-1 choose k-1} \
    &= D_n + n! - sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (-1)^j((n-1)-j)!{n-1 choose j} \
    &= D_n + n! - D_{n-1}
    end{align}






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      Is there no simple solutions without pulling any big guns? The problem shouldn't be this complicated and I think I'm missing a key principle. (In addition I'm not sure the solution you achieved is correct)
      $endgroup$
      – Theorem
      Dec 15 '18 at 11:23












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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    1












    $begingroup$

    Call a permutation $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ good if $sigma(i)neq i$ for all $1leq ileq n$ and and $sigma(n+1)neq n$.



    Let $sigma$ be a good permutation, and let $a:=sigma(n+1)$ and $b:=sigma^{-1}(n+1)$, so that $aneq n$. If $aneq b$ then the permutation $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $n+1$ and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}$. If $a=b$ then $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $a$ and $n+1$, and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$.



    Conversely, for any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}$ and any $ain{1,ldots,n+1}$ with $aneq n$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good. Also, for any $ain{1,ldots,n-1}$ and any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good.



    This shows that the number of good permutations is $nD_n+(n-1)D_{n-1}$, where $D_m$ denotes the number of derangements of ${1,ldots,m}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Call a permutation $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ good if $sigma(i)neq i$ for all $1leq ileq n$ and and $sigma(n+1)neq n$.



      Let $sigma$ be a good permutation, and let $a:=sigma(n+1)$ and $b:=sigma^{-1}(n+1)$, so that $aneq n$. If $aneq b$ then the permutation $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $n+1$ and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}$. If $a=b$ then $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $a$ and $n+1$, and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$.



      Conversely, for any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}$ and any $ain{1,ldots,n+1}$ with $aneq n$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good. Also, for any $ain{1,ldots,n-1}$ and any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good.



      This shows that the number of good permutations is $nD_n+(n-1)D_{n-1}$, where $D_m$ denotes the number of derangements of ${1,ldots,m}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Call a permutation $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ good if $sigma(i)neq i$ for all $1leq ileq n$ and and $sigma(n+1)neq n$.



        Let $sigma$ be a good permutation, and let $a:=sigma(n+1)$ and $b:=sigma^{-1}(n+1)$, so that $aneq n$. If $aneq b$ then the permutation $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $n+1$ and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}$. If $a=b$ then $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $a$ and $n+1$, and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$.



        Conversely, for any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}$ and any $ain{1,ldots,n+1}$ with $aneq n$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good. Also, for any $ain{1,ldots,n-1}$ and any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good.



        This shows that the number of good permutations is $nD_n+(n-1)D_{n-1}$, where $D_m$ denotes the number of derangements of ${1,ldots,m}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Call a permutation $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n+1}$ good if $sigma(i)neq i$ for all $1leq ileq n$ and and $sigma(n+1)neq n$.



        Let $sigma$ be a good permutation, and let $a:=sigma(n+1)$ and $b:=sigma^{-1}(n+1)$, so that $aneq n$. If $aneq b$ then the permutation $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $n+1$ and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}$. If $a=b$ then $(a n+1)sigma$ fixes $a$ and $n+1$, and is a derangement of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$.



        Conversely, for any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}$ and any $ain{1,ldots,n+1}$ with $aneq n$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good. Also, for any $ain{1,ldots,n-1}$ and any derangement $sigma$ of ${1,ldots,n}setminus{a}$ the composition $(a n+1)sigma$ is good.



        This shows that the number of good permutations is $nD_n+(n-1)D_{n-1}$, where $D_m$ denotes the number of derangements of ${1,ldots,m}$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 15 '18 at 20:17

























        answered Dec 15 '18 at 19:57









        ServaesServaes

        30.5k342101




        30.5k342101























            1












            $begingroup$

            These kind of problems (permutations with forbidden positions) can be elegantly solved using rook numbers/polynomials:




            Let $P subseteq {1, ldots, n}^2$ be the diagram of forbidden positions. The number of permutations $p in S_n$ such that $(i,p(i)) notin P$ for all $i = 1, ldots, n$ is given by
            $$sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k$$
            where $r_k$ is the number of ways to place $k$ nonattacking rooks on the diagram $P$.




            In our case the diagram e.g. for $n=4$ (the board is then $5 times 5$) is given by:



            enter image description here



            $0$ rooks can be placed in one way on $P$. To place $k$ rooks on $P$, one can place a rook on one of the two positions in the last column of $P$ in $2$ ways and then place $k-1$ rooks on $n-1$ remaining positions, or one can just place all $k$ rooks in the first $n-1$ columns, ignoring the last one. Hence
            $$r_k = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            2{n-1 choose k-1} + {n-1 choose k}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases} = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            {n choose k} + {n-1 choose k-1}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases}$$



            Therefore the result is
            begin{align}
            sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k &= sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n choose k} + n! + sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n-1 choose k-1} \
            &= D_n + n! - sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (-1)^j((n-1)-j)!{n-1 choose j} \
            &= D_n + n! - D_{n-1}
            end{align}






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Is there no simple solutions without pulling any big guns? The problem shouldn't be this complicated and I think I'm missing a key principle. (In addition I'm not sure the solution you achieved is correct)
              $endgroup$
              – Theorem
              Dec 15 '18 at 11:23
















            1












            $begingroup$

            These kind of problems (permutations with forbidden positions) can be elegantly solved using rook numbers/polynomials:




            Let $P subseteq {1, ldots, n}^2$ be the diagram of forbidden positions. The number of permutations $p in S_n$ such that $(i,p(i)) notin P$ for all $i = 1, ldots, n$ is given by
            $$sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k$$
            where $r_k$ is the number of ways to place $k$ nonattacking rooks on the diagram $P$.




            In our case the diagram e.g. for $n=4$ (the board is then $5 times 5$) is given by:



            enter image description here



            $0$ rooks can be placed in one way on $P$. To place $k$ rooks on $P$, one can place a rook on one of the two positions in the last column of $P$ in $2$ ways and then place $k-1$ rooks on $n-1$ remaining positions, or one can just place all $k$ rooks in the first $n-1$ columns, ignoring the last one. Hence
            $$r_k = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            2{n-1 choose k-1} + {n-1 choose k}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases} = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            {n choose k} + {n-1 choose k-1}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases}$$



            Therefore the result is
            begin{align}
            sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k &= sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n choose k} + n! + sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n-1 choose k-1} \
            &= D_n + n! - sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (-1)^j((n-1)-j)!{n-1 choose j} \
            &= D_n + n! - D_{n-1}
            end{align}






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Is there no simple solutions without pulling any big guns? The problem shouldn't be this complicated and I think I'm missing a key principle. (In addition I'm not sure the solution you achieved is correct)
              $endgroup$
              – Theorem
              Dec 15 '18 at 11:23














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            These kind of problems (permutations with forbidden positions) can be elegantly solved using rook numbers/polynomials:




            Let $P subseteq {1, ldots, n}^2$ be the diagram of forbidden positions. The number of permutations $p in S_n$ such that $(i,p(i)) notin P$ for all $i = 1, ldots, n$ is given by
            $$sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k$$
            where $r_k$ is the number of ways to place $k$ nonattacking rooks on the diagram $P$.




            In our case the diagram e.g. for $n=4$ (the board is then $5 times 5$) is given by:



            enter image description here



            $0$ rooks can be placed in one way on $P$. To place $k$ rooks on $P$, one can place a rook on one of the two positions in the last column of $P$ in $2$ ways and then place $k-1$ rooks on $n-1$ remaining positions, or one can just place all $k$ rooks in the first $n-1$ columns, ignoring the last one. Hence
            $$r_k = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            2{n-1 choose k-1} + {n-1 choose k}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases} = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            {n choose k} + {n-1 choose k-1}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases}$$



            Therefore the result is
            begin{align}
            sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k &= sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n choose k} + n! + sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n-1 choose k-1} \
            &= D_n + n! - sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (-1)^j((n-1)-j)!{n-1 choose j} \
            &= D_n + n! - D_{n-1}
            end{align}






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            These kind of problems (permutations with forbidden positions) can be elegantly solved using rook numbers/polynomials:




            Let $P subseteq {1, ldots, n}^2$ be the diagram of forbidden positions. The number of permutations $p in S_n$ such that $(i,p(i)) notin P$ for all $i = 1, ldots, n$ is given by
            $$sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k$$
            where $r_k$ is the number of ways to place $k$ nonattacking rooks on the diagram $P$.




            In our case the diagram e.g. for $n=4$ (the board is then $5 times 5$) is given by:



            enter image description here



            $0$ rooks can be placed in one way on $P$. To place $k$ rooks on $P$, one can place a rook on one of the two positions in the last column of $P$ in $2$ ways and then place $k-1$ rooks on $n-1$ remaining positions, or one can just place all $k$ rooks in the first $n-1$ columns, ignoring the last one. Hence
            $$r_k = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            2{n-1 choose k-1} + {n-1 choose k}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases} = begin{cases}
            1, text{ if }k=0\
            {n choose k} + {n-1 choose k-1}, text{ if }k ge 1
            end{cases}$$



            Therefore the result is
            begin{align}
            sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!r_k &= sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n choose k} + n! + sum_{k=1}^n (-1)^k(n-k)!{n-1 choose k-1} \
            &= D_n + n! - sum_{j=0}^{n-1} (-1)^j((n-1)-j)!{n-1 choose j} \
            &= D_n + n! - D_{n-1}
            end{align}







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 15 '18 at 10:53

























            answered Dec 15 '18 at 10:47









            mechanodroidmechanodroid

            28.9k62648




            28.9k62648












            • $begingroup$
              Is there no simple solutions without pulling any big guns? The problem shouldn't be this complicated and I think I'm missing a key principle. (In addition I'm not sure the solution you achieved is correct)
              $endgroup$
              – Theorem
              Dec 15 '18 at 11:23


















            • $begingroup$
              Is there no simple solutions without pulling any big guns? The problem shouldn't be this complicated and I think I'm missing a key principle. (In addition I'm not sure the solution you achieved is correct)
              $endgroup$
              – Theorem
              Dec 15 '18 at 11:23
















            $begingroup$
            Is there no simple solutions without pulling any big guns? The problem shouldn't be this complicated and I think I'm missing a key principle. (In addition I'm not sure the solution you achieved is correct)
            $endgroup$
            – Theorem
            Dec 15 '18 at 11:23




            $begingroup$
            Is there no simple solutions without pulling any big guns? The problem shouldn't be this complicated and I think I'm missing a key principle. (In addition I'm not sure the solution you achieved is correct)
            $endgroup$
            – Theorem
            Dec 15 '18 at 11:23


















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