Why Hahn-Banach theorem is needed for the following theorem?












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One theorem in Rudin's Real and complex analysis says the following:



If $X$ is a normed linear space and if $x_0 in X$, $x_0neq 0$, there is a bounded linear funcitonal $f$ on $X$, of norm 1, so that $f(x_0)=||x_0||$.



He uses the Hahn-Banach theorem to prove it, but why we cannot just say that $f(x)=||x||$ works?










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$endgroup$

















    -1












    $begingroup$


    One theorem in Rudin's Real and complex analysis says the following:



    If $X$ is a normed linear space and if $x_0 in X$, $x_0neq 0$, there is a bounded linear funcitonal $f$ on $X$, of norm 1, so that $f(x_0)=||x_0||$.



    He uses the Hahn-Banach theorem to prove it, but why we cannot just say that $f(x)=||x||$ works?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      -1












      -1








      -1





      $begingroup$


      One theorem in Rudin's Real and complex analysis says the following:



      If $X$ is a normed linear space and if $x_0 in X$, $x_0neq 0$, there is a bounded linear funcitonal $f$ on $X$, of norm 1, so that $f(x_0)=||x_0||$.



      He uses the Hahn-Banach theorem to prove it, but why we cannot just say that $f(x)=||x||$ works?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      One theorem in Rudin's Real and complex analysis says the following:



      If $X$ is a normed linear space and if $x_0 in X$, $x_0neq 0$, there is a bounded linear funcitonal $f$ on $X$, of norm 1, so that $f(x_0)=||x_0||$.



      He uses the Hahn-Banach theorem to prove it, but why we cannot just say that $f(x)=||x||$ works?







      functional-analysis






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      asked Dec 3 '18 at 14:37









      eigenvalueeigenvalue

      11




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          2 Answers
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          No, we cannot, because that map is not a linear map.






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            2












            $begingroup$

            $f(x)=|x|$ is not linear!



            There is no guarantee that $f(x+y) = |x+y|$ is equal to $f(x)+f(y) = |x|+|y|$.



            In fact this is almost never happens.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              active

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              active

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              2












              $begingroup$

              No, we cannot, because that map is not a linear map.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                No, we cannot, because that map is not a linear map.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  No, we cannot, because that map is not a linear map.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  No, we cannot, because that map is not a linear map.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 3 '18 at 14:40









                  José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

                  163k22130234




                  163k22130234























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      $f(x)=|x|$ is not linear!



                      There is no guarantee that $f(x+y) = |x+y|$ is equal to $f(x)+f(y) = |x|+|y|$.



                      In fact this is almost never happens.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        $f(x)=|x|$ is not linear!



                        There is no guarantee that $f(x+y) = |x+y|$ is equal to $f(x)+f(y) = |x|+|y|$.



                        In fact this is almost never happens.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          $f(x)=|x|$ is not linear!



                          There is no guarantee that $f(x+y) = |x+y|$ is equal to $f(x)+f(y) = |x|+|y|$.



                          In fact this is almost never happens.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          $f(x)=|x|$ is not linear!



                          There is no guarantee that $f(x+y) = |x+y|$ is equal to $f(x)+f(y) = |x|+|y|$.



                          In fact this is almost never happens.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 3 '18 at 14:41









                          YankoYanko

                          7,0381629




                          7,0381629






























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