Ask for intuitive explanation of an expectation












1












$begingroup$


If X~HGeom(w,b,n), and Y = $Xchoose2$, then:



$$E(Y) = frac{{w choose 2}{n choose 2}}{{w+b} choose 2}$$



This post:
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1669384/152816,



has a very detailed mathematical proof.



But since the result is very symmetric, it seems there could be an intuitive explanation of E(Y), i.e. we could story proof this E(Y) formula without complicated mathematical proof, could anyone think of an intuitive explanation of E(Y)?



Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    If X~HGeom(w,b,n), and Y = $Xchoose2$, then:



    $$E(Y) = frac{{w choose 2}{n choose 2}}{{w+b} choose 2}$$



    This post:
    https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1669384/152816,



    has a very detailed mathematical proof.



    But since the result is very symmetric, it seems there could be an intuitive explanation of E(Y), i.e. we could story proof this E(Y) formula without complicated mathematical proof, could anyone think of an intuitive explanation of E(Y)?



    Thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      0



      $begingroup$


      If X~HGeom(w,b,n), and Y = $Xchoose2$, then:



      $$E(Y) = frac{{w choose 2}{n choose 2}}{{w+b} choose 2}$$



      This post:
      https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1669384/152816,



      has a very detailed mathematical proof.



      But since the result is very symmetric, it seems there could be an intuitive explanation of E(Y), i.e. we could story proof this E(Y) formula without complicated mathematical proof, could anyone think of an intuitive explanation of E(Y)?



      Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      If X~HGeom(w,b,n), and Y = $Xchoose2$, then:



      $$E(Y) = frac{{w choose 2}{n choose 2}}{{w+b} choose 2}$$



      This post:
      https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1669384/152816,



      has a very detailed mathematical proof.



      But since the result is very symmetric, it seems there could be an intuitive explanation of E(Y), i.e. we could story proof this E(Y) formula without complicated mathematical proof, could anyone think of an intuitive explanation of E(Y)?



      Thanks.







      probability expected-value






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 4 '18 at 2:57









      wangshuaijiewangshuaijie

      1788




      1788






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          $binom{X}2$ is equal to the number of pairs of white balls which are chosen. For each particular pair of white balls, the probability they are chosen is equal to
          $$
          frac{binom{b+w-2}{n-2}}{binom{b+w}{n}}=frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}:=p
          $$

          Since there are $binom{w}2$ pairs of white balls, and each is chosen about $p$ of the time, you would expect there to be $pcdot binom{w}2 $ pairs of white balls chosen. This implies the expected value of $binom{X}2$ is
          $$
          frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}cdotbinom{w}2=frac{binom{n}2binom{w}2}{binom{b+w}2}=EBig[binom{X}2Big].
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1












            $begingroup$

            $binom{X}2$ is equal to the number of pairs of white balls which are chosen. For each particular pair of white balls, the probability they are chosen is equal to
            $$
            frac{binom{b+w-2}{n-2}}{binom{b+w}{n}}=frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}:=p
            $$

            Since there are $binom{w}2$ pairs of white balls, and each is chosen about $p$ of the time, you would expect there to be $pcdot binom{w}2 $ pairs of white balls chosen. This implies the expected value of $binom{X}2$ is
            $$
            frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}cdotbinom{w}2=frac{binom{n}2binom{w}2}{binom{b+w}2}=EBig[binom{X}2Big].
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              $binom{X}2$ is equal to the number of pairs of white balls which are chosen. For each particular pair of white balls, the probability they are chosen is equal to
              $$
              frac{binom{b+w-2}{n-2}}{binom{b+w}{n}}=frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}:=p
              $$

              Since there are $binom{w}2$ pairs of white balls, and each is chosen about $p$ of the time, you would expect there to be $pcdot binom{w}2 $ pairs of white balls chosen. This implies the expected value of $binom{X}2$ is
              $$
              frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}cdotbinom{w}2=frac{binom{n}2binom{w}2}{binom{b+w}2}=EBig[binom{X}2Big].
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                $binom{X}2$ is equal to the number of pairs of white balls which are chosen. For each particular pair of white balls, the probability they are chosen is equal to
                $$
                frac{binom{b+w-2}{n-2}}{binom{b+w}{n}}=frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}:=p
                $$

                Since there are $binom{w}2$ pairs of white balls, and each is chosen about $p$ of the time, you would expect there to be $pcdot binom{w}2 $ pairs of white balls chosen. This implies the expected value of $binom{X}2$ is
                $$
                frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}cdotbinom{w}2=frac{binom{n}2binom{w}2}{binom{b+w}2}=EBig[binom{X}2Big].
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                $binom{X}2$ is equal to the number of pairs of white balls which are chosen. For each particular pair of white balls, the probability they are chosen is equal to
                $$
                frac{binom{b+w-2}{n-2}}{binom{b+w}{n}}=frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}:=p
                $$

                Since there are $binom{w}2$ pairs of white balls, and each is chosen about $p$ of the time, you would expect there to be $pcdot binom{w}2 $ pairs of white balls chosen. This implies the expected value of $binom{X}2$ is
                $$
                frac{n}{b+w}cdotfrac{n-1}{b+w-1}cdotbinom{w}2=frac{binom{n}2binom{w}2}{binom{b+w}2}=EBig[binom{X}2Big].
                $$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 4 '18 at 6:42









                Mike EarnestMike Earnest

                23.7k12051




                23.7k12051






























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