Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and...












0












$begingroup$



Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.




Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.



Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.



We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.



Thus, our formula becomes:



$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$




How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
    $endgroup$
    – karakfa
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:39
















0












$begingroup$



Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.




Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.



Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.



We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.



Thus, our formula becomes:



$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$




How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
    $endgroup$
    – karakfa
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:39














0












0








0





$begingroup$



Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.




Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.



Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.



We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.



Thus, our formula becomes:



$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$




How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.




Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.



Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.



We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.



Thus, our formula becomes:



$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$




How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?







probability statistics covariance variance expected-value






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 26 '18 at 21:42







K Split X

















asked Nov 26 '18 at 21:28









K Split XK Split X

4,19611131




4,19611131












  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
    $endgroup$
    – karakfa
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:39


















  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
    $endgroup$
    – karakfa
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:35










  • $begingroup$
    Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 '18 at 21:39
















$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34




$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34




1




1




$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35




$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35












$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39




$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

$E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$


    How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




    You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.




    Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?




    No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.



    You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$



    In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$



    And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.



    From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
      $endgroup$
      – K Split X
      Nov 27 '18 at 0:27






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
      $endgroup$
      – Henry
      Nov 27 '18 at 1:07











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    active

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    0












    $begingroup$

    $E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      $E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        $E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        $E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 26 '18 at 22:35

























        answered Nov 26 '18 at 22:20









        herb steinbergherb steinberg

        2,5582310




        2,5582310























            0












            $begingroup$


            How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




            You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.




            Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?




            No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.



            You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$



            In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$



            And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.



            From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
              $endgroup$
              – K Split X
              Nov 27 '18 at 0:27






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
              $endgroup$
              – Henry
              Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
















            0












            $begingroup$


            How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




            You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.




            Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?




            No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.



            You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$



            In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$



            And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.



            From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
              $endgroup$
              – K Split X
              Nov 27 '18 at 0:27






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
              $endgroup$
              – Henry
              Nov 27 '18 at 1:07














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$


            How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




            You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.




            Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?




            No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.



            You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$



            In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$



            And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.



            From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




            How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?




            You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.




            Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?




            No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.



            You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$



            In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$



            And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.



            From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 26 '18 at 22:47









            Graham KempGraham Kemp

            85.1k43378




            85.1k43378












            • $begingroup$
              If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
              $endgroup$
              – K Split X
              Nov 27 '18 at 0:27






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
              $endgroup$
              – Henry
              Nov 27 '18 at 1:07


















            • $begingroup$
              If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
              $endgroup$
              – K Split X
              Nov 27 '18 at 0:27






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
              $endgroup$
              – Henry
              Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
















            $begingroup$
            If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
            $endgroup$
            – K Split X
            Nov 27 '18 at 0:27




            $begingroup$
            If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
            $endgroup$
            – K Split X
            Nov 27 '18 at 0:27




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
            $endgroup$
            – Henry
            Nov 27 '18 at 1:07




            $begingroup$
            @KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
            $endgroup$
            – Henry
            Nov 27 '18 at 1:07


















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