Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and...
$begingroup$
Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.
Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.
Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.
We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.
Thus, our formula becomes:
$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
probability statistics covariance variance expected-value
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.
Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.
Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.
We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.
Thus, our formula becomes:
$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
probability statistics covariance variance expected-value
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34
1
$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35
$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.
Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.
Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.
We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.
Thus, our formula becomes:
$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
probability statistics covariance variance expected-value
$endgroup$
Suppose you flip four fair coins. Let $X$ be the number of heads showing, and
let $Y$ be the number of tails showing. Compute $Cov(X, Y)$ and $Corr(X, Y)$.
Although it is not stated, it is clear that $X,Y$ are Binomial to $n=4, theta=1/2$.
Thus we know that variance of a binom dist is $ntheta(1-theta)=1$ in our case.
We also know that the expectation of a binom dist is $ntheta=2$ in our case.
Thus, our formula becomes:
$cov(X,Y)=E(XY)-E(X)E(Y)=E(XY)-(2)(2)$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
probability statistics covariance variance expected-value
probability statistics covariance variance expected-value
edited Nov 26 '18 at 21:42
K Split X
asked Nov 26 '18 at 21:28
K Split XK Split X
4,19611131
4,19611131
$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34
1
$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35
$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34
1
$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35
$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39
$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34
$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34
1
1
$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35
$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35
$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39
$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
$E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.
You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$
In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$
And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.
From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
$endgroup$
– K Split X
Nov 27 '18 at 0:27
1
$begingroup$
@KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
$E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.
$endgroup$
$E(X)=E(Y)=2$ as you computed. $E(X^2)=E(Y^2)=5$, so $Var(X)=Var(Y)=1$ and $E(XY)=E(X(4-X))=4E(X)-E(X^2)=3$, so $Cov(X,Y)=-1$ and $Cor(X,Y)=-1$.
edited Nov 26 '18 at 22:35
answered Nov 26 '18 at 22:20
herb steinbergherb steinberg
2,5582310
2,5582310
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.
You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$
In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$
And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.
From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
$endgroup$
– K Split X
Nov 27 '18 at 0:27
1
$begingroup$
@KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.
You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$
In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$
And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.
From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
$endgroup$
– K Split X
Nov 27 '18 at 0:27
1
$begingroup$
@KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.
You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$
In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$
And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.
From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.
$endgroup$
How do I calculate $E(X)E(Y)$?
You just did. You likely mean $E(XY)$.
Can I treat $X$ and $Y$ as independent?
No, they are clearly very dependent, and indeed $Y=4-X$ is a linear relation, so you immediately know the correlation coefficent.
You might use $mathsf E(XY)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)$, so $mathsf {Cov}(X,Y)=mathsf E(4X-X^2)-mathsf E(X)(mathsf E(4-X)$
In short: $$mathsf Cov(X,Y)~{=mathsf Cov(X,4-X) \= -mathsf Var(X)}$$
And you know the variance of a binomially distributed random variable.
From this you can calculate the correlation coefficient, if feel the you need to.
answered Nov 26 '18 at 22:47
Graham KempGraham Kemp
85.1k43378
85.1k43378
$begingroup$
If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
$endgroup$
– K Split X
Nov 27 '18 at 0:27
1
$begingroup$
@KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
$endgroup$
– K Split X
Nov 27 '18 at 0:27
1
$begingroup$
@KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
$endgroup$
– K Split X
Nov 27 '18 at 0:27
$begingroup$
If I define $Y=4-X$, then how can I calculate the variance of $Y$? It would be $var(4)-var(X)=0-1=-1$? How is this allowed.
$endgroup$
– K Split X
Nov 27 '18 at 0:27
1
1
$begingroup$
@KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
$begingroup$
@KSplitX - no. The variance of $a+bX$ is $b^2$ times the variance of $X$. Here $a=4$ and $b=-1$ so $b^2=1$ and the variance of $Y$ is equal to the variance of $X$
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 27 '18 at 1:07
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I suspect that $X$ and $Y$ are binomial. This may be what you intended
$endgroup$
– Henry
Nov 26 '18 at 21:34
1
$begingroup$
They are not independent note that $Y=4-X$.
$endgroup$
– karakfa
Nov 26 '18 at 21:35
$begingroup$
Note that X and $X$ are regarded as "different" symbols sometimes. Mathematicians use different fonts of the same symbol all the time within the literature to mean different things. It is good practice, then, to stay consistent with one's notation throughout any given text.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 26 '18 at 21:39