Doubt about the topological space of Measurable Functions












2














My teacher wrote this on the blackboard but I can't see why it's true or not.




The vector space of (Lebesgue) measurable functions with the point-wise topology is a topological vector space which is closed.




I don't really get it, because in every topology, the whole set, is open and closed, so I thought he might have wanted to say complete. I don't know, I'm quite confused.



EDIT: I asked him what he meant, by email, and stated that he might've wanted to say sequentially closed but this was his answer:




Consider the vector space of functions with domain on a measurable set, endowed with the point-wise convergence topology, then the subset of measurable ones is closed.











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  • 4




    Maybe he meant that if a sequence of Lebesgue measurable function converges pointwise to some function, then the limiting function is also Lebesgue measurable, i,e; the space is closed under talking limit.
    – Surajit
    Nov 23 '18 at 13:56










  • I've edited the question with the answer my teacher gave me.
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 24 '18 at 9:53
















2














My teacher wrote this on the blackboard but I can't see why it's true or not.




The vector space of (Lebesgue) measurable functions with the point-wise topology is a topological vector space which is closed.




I don't really get it, because in every topology, the whole set, is open and closed, so I thought he might have wanted to say complete. I don't know, I'm quite confused.



EDIT: I asked him what he meant, by email, and stated that he might've wanted to say sequentially closed but this was his answer:




Consider the vector space of functions with domain on a measurable set, endowed with the point-wise convergence topology, then the subset of measurable ones is closed.











share|cite|improve this question




















  • 4




    Maybe he meant that if a sequence of Lebesgue measurable function converges pointwise to some function, then the limiting function is also Lebesgue measurable, i,e; the space is closed under talking limit.
    – Surajit
    Nov 23 '18 at 13:56










  • I've edited the question with the answer my teacher gave me.
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 24 '18 at 9:53














2












2








2







My teacher wrote this on the blackboard but I can't see why it's true or not.




The vector space of (Lebesgue) measurable functions with the point-wise topology is a topological vector space which is closed.




I don't really get it, because in every topology, the whole set, is open and closed, so I thought he might have wanted to say complete. I don't know, I'm quite confused.



EDIT: I asked him what he meant, by email, and stated that he might've wanted to say sequentially closed but this was his answer:




Consider the vector space of functions with domain on a measurable set, endowed with the point-wise convergence topology, then the subset of measurable ones is closed.











share|cite|improve this question















My teacher wrote this on the blackboard but I can't see why it's true or not.




The vector space of (Lebesgue) measurable functions with the point-wise topology is a topological vector space which is closed.




I don't really get it, because in every topology, the whole set, is open and closed, so I thought he might have wanted to say complete. I don't know, I'm quite confused.



EDIT: I asked him what he meant, by email, and stated that he might've wanted to say sequentially closed but this was his answer:




Consider the vector space of functions with domain on a measurable set, endowed with the point-wise convergence topology, then the subset of measurable ones is closed.








general-topology functional-analysis measure-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 24 '18 at 9:52







M. Navarro

















asked Nov 23 '18 at 13:51









M. NavarroM. Navarro

678




678








  • 4




    Maybe he meant that if a sequence of Lebesgue measurable function converges pointwise to some function, then the limiting function is also Lebesgue measurable, i,e; the space is closed under talking limit.
    – Surajit
    Nov 23 '18 at 13:56










  • I've edited the question with the answer my teacher gave me.
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 24 '18 at 9:53














  • 4




    Maybe he meant that if a sequence of Lebesgue measurable function converges pointwise to some function, then the limiting function is also Lebesgue measurable, i,e; the space is closed under talking limit.
    – Surajit
    Nov 23 '18 at 13:56










  • I've edited the question with the answer my teacher gave me.
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 24 '18 at 9:53








4




4




Maybe he meant that if a sequence of Lebesgue measurable function converges pointwise to some function, then the limiting function is also Lebesgue measurable, i,e; the space is closed under talking limit.
– Surajit
Nov 23 '18 at 13:56




Maybe he meant that if a sequence of Lebesgue measurable function converges pointwise to some function, then the limiting function is also Lebesgue measurable, i,e; the space is closed under talking limit.
– Surajit
Nov 23 '18 at 13:56












I've edited the question with the answer my teacher gave me.
– M. Navarro
Nov 24 '18 at 9:53




I've edited the question with the answer my teacher gave me.
– M. Navarro
Nov 24 '18 at 9:53










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2














The statement is rather controversial, because its most natural interpretation




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




is false (provided we believe in non-measurable functions). In point of fact, the subset $S$ of all the functions $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$ such that ${xinBbb R,:, f(x)ne 0}$ has finite cardinality is already dense in that topology.



The second most natural guess would be




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a sequentially closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




Which is, of course, true: the pointwise limit of a sequence ${f_n}_{ninBbb N}$ of Lebesgue measurable functions is Lebesgue measurable.



In my opinion, you may want to ask your teacher for clarifications.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I'll ask him, and if this is what he really means, I'll accept your answer. Thanks in advance!!
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 23 '18 at 16:06











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2














The statement is rather controversial, because its most natural interpretation




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




is false (provided we believe in non-measurable functions). In point of fact, the subset $S$ of all the functions $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$ such that ${xinBbb R,:, f(x)ne 0}$ has finite cardinality is already dense in that topology.



The second most natural guess would be




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a sequentially closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




Which is, of course, true: the pointwise limit of a sequence ${f_n}_{ninBbb N}$ of Lebesgue measurable functions is Lebesgue measurable.



In my opinion, you may want to ask your teacher for clarifications.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I'll ask him, and if this is what he really means, I'll accept your answer. Thanks in advance!!
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 23 '18 at 16:06
















2














The statement is rather controversial, because its most natural interpretation




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




is false (provided we believe in non-measurable functions). In point of fact, the subset $S$ of all the functions $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$ such that ${xinBbb R,:, f(x)ne 0}$ has finite cardinality is already dense in that topology.



The second most natural guess would be




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a sequentially closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




Which is, of course, true: the pointwise limit of a sequence ${f_n}_{ninBbb N}$ of Lebesgue measurable functions is Lebesgue measurable.



In my opinion, you may want to ask your teacher for clarifications.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I'll ask him, and if this is what he really means, I'll accept your answer. Thanks in advance!!
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 23 '18 at 16:06














2












2








2






The statement is rather controversial, because its most natural interpretation




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




is false (provided we believe in non-measurable functions). In point of fact, the subset $S$ of all the functions $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$ such that ${xinBbb R,:, f(x)ne 0}$ has finite cardinality is already dense in that topology.



The second most natural guess would be




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a sequentially closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




Which is, of course, true: the pointwise limit of a sequence ${f_n}_{ninBbb N}$ of Lebesgue measurable functions is Lebesgue measurable.



In my opinion, you may want to ask your teacher for clarifications.






share|cite|improve this answer














The statement is rather controversial, because its most natural interpretation




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




is false (provided we believe in non-measurable functions). In point of fact, the subset $S$ of all the functions $f:Bbb RtoBbb R$ such that ${xinBbb R,:, f(x)ne 0}$ has finite cardinality is already dense in that topology.



The second most natural guess would be




The space of Lebesgue measurable functions is a sequentially closed subspace of $Bbb R^{Bbb R}$ endowed with the product topology.




Which is, of course, true: the pointwise limit of a sequence ${f_n}_{ninBbb N}$ of Lebesgue measurable functions is Lebesgue measurable.



In my opinion, you may want to ask your teacher for clarifications.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 23 '18 at 16:25

























answered Nov 23 '18 at 16:02









Saucy O'PathSaucy O'Path

5,8341626




5,8341626












  • I'll ask him, and if this is what he really means, I'll accept your answer. Thanks in advance!!
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 23 '18 at 16:06


















  • I'll ask him, and if this is what he really means, I'll accept your answer. Thanks in advance!!
    – M. Navarro
    Nov 23 '18 at 16:06
















I'll ask him, and if this is what he really means, I'll accept your answer. Thanks in advance!!
– M. Navarro
Nov 23 '18 at 16:06




I'll ask him, and if this is what he really means, I'll accept your answer. Thanks in advance!!
– M. Navarro
Nov 23 '18 at 16:06


















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