Lebesgue integral question
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Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
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Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 6:13
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
Nov 14 at 6:14
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 14 at 6:18
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
Let $f:mathbb{R}rightarrowmathbb{R}$ be a measurable function. Show that if $f$ is continuous and fix $x_0in mathbb{R}$, then $lim_{nrightarrowinfty}nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}fdm=f(x_0)$.
Hint: Use the max-min theorem which says: For any continuous function $f$ on a compact set $[a,b]$, there are points $x_{max},x_{min}in[a,b]$ such that $f(x_{max})geq f(x)geq f(x_{min})$ for all $xin[a,b]$.
real-analysis
real-analysis
edited Nov 14 at 6:31
KCd
16.5k3874
16.5k3874
asked Nov 14 at 6:04
TNT
293
293
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 6:13
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
Nov 14 at 6:14
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 14 at 6:18
add a comment |
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 6:13
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
Nov 14 at 6:14
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 14 at 6:18
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 6:13
Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 6:13
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
Nov 14 at 6:14
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
Nov 14 at 6:14
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 14 at 6:18
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 14 at 6:18
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
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up vote
1
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The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof that uses only continuity at $x_0$: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
The function is continuous, so we may just use the fundamental theorem of calculus for the Riemann integral, which of course agrees with the Lebesgue one.
By the FTC,
$$
lim_{hto 0}frac{1}{h}int_{x_0}^{x_0+h}f(x)mathrm dx=f(x_0)
$$
This will certainly hold along your particular sequence $h=1/n$.
If you want to work harder, for a given $epsilon>0$, find $delta>0$ with
$$
x_0-delta<x<x_0+deltaimplies f(x_0)-epsilon<f(x)<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
then for $n>1/delta$, and with monotonicity of integration
$$
nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x_0)+epsilon\
implies f(x_0)-epsilon<nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x)dx<f(x_0)+epsilon
$$
answered Nov 14 at 6:25
qbert
21.5k32458
21.5k32458
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof that uses only continuity at $x_0$: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof that uses only continuity at $x_0$: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof that uses only continuity at $x_0$: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$.
Unnecessarily sophisticated proof that uses only continuity at $x_0$: start with the change of variable $x = x_0 + s/n$,
$$nint_{x_0}^{x_0+1/n}f(x),dx = int_0^1 f(x_0 + s/n),ds$$
and apply the dominated convergence theorem (the continuity of $f$ in $x_0$ implies that the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ are uniformly bounded for $n$ large enough).
Less sophisticated variant: the functions $smapsto f(x_0 + s/n)$ converge uniformly to the constant $f(x_0)$.
edited Nov 15 at 7:43
answered Nov 14 at 8:52
Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
33.7k42770
33.7k42770
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Try something more elementary. No Theorem from measure theory used to interchange limits and integrals is required.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 6:13
I suggest you look at the definition of a Riemann integral. Try showing this result for a very simple partition.
– Jabbath
Nov 14 at 6:14
Think of applying mean value theorem on the function given by the indefinite integral of $f$, which is differentiable with derivative $f$.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 14 at 6:18