If $G$ is a finite group of odd order, show there is only one homomorphism between $G$ and...











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If $G$ is a finite group of odd order, show there is only one homomorphism between $G$ and $mathbb{R}^{times}$ which is the trivial one.




I know there is a similar case if the order of G and H is coprime. then the order of image of $G$ is 1. But in this case, order of $mathbb{R}^{times}$ is infinite. Any hints would be helpful. Thanks in advance.










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    The only real solution to $x^n=1$ when $n$ is odd, is $x=1$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 13 at 6:25















up vote
2
down vote

favorite













If $G$ is a finite group of odd order, show there is only one homomorphism between $G$ and $mathbb{R}^{times}$ which is the trivial one.




I know there is a similar case if the order of G and H is coprime. then the order of image of $G$ is 1. But in this case, order of $mathbb{R}^{times}$ is infinite. Any hints would be helpful. Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 3




    The only real solution to $x^n=1$ when $n$ is odd, is $x=1$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 13 at 6:25













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite












If $G$ is a finite group of odd order, show there is only one homomorphism between $G$ and $mathbb{R}^{times}$ which is the trivial one.




I know there is a similar case if the order of G and H is coprime. then the order of image of $G$ is 1. But in this case, order of $mathbb{R}^{times}$ is infinite. Any hints would be helpful. Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question
















If $G$ is a finite group of odd order, show there is only one homomorphism between $G$ and $mathbb{R}^{times}$ which is the trivial one.




I know there is a similar case if the order of G and H is coprime. then the order of image of $G$ is 1. But in this case, order of $mathbb{R}^{times}$ is infinite. Any hints would be helpful. Thanks in advance.







abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups group-homomorphism






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edited Nov 13 at 7:26









Batominovski

31.5k23187




31.5k23187










asked Nov 13 at 6:22









LOIS

3558




3558








  • 3




    The only real solution to $x^n=1$ when $n$ is odd, is $x=1$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 13 at 6:25














  • 3




    The only real solution to $x^n=1$ when $n$ is odd, is $x=1$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 13 at 6:25








3




3




The only real solution to $x^n=1$ when $n$ is odd, is $x=1$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 13 at 6:25




The only real solution to $x^n=1$ when $n$ is odd, is $x=1$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 13 at 6:25










1 Answer
1






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oldest

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up vote
4
down vote



accepted










A homomorphism from $G$ to $mathbb R^times$ satisfies $phi(a^n) = (phi(a))^n$ for all $a in G$ and $n in mathbb N$.



With this in mind, note that $a in G$ always satisfies $a^{|G|} = e_G$. Applying $phi$ on both sides yields $(phi(a))^{|G|} = 1$.



That is, $phi(a)$ is a real number, which satisfies $phi(a)^{|G|} = 1$, where $|G|$ is odd. This forces $phi(a) = 1$ for all $a$. So $phi$ is trivial.





Note that non-trivial homomorphisms in the reverse direction i.e. from $mathbb R^times$ to $G$ may very much exist. Can you think of an obvious map from $mathbb R^times$ to the multiplicative group $pm 1$ of two elements, for example?





Note that if $|G|$ is even, then the statement is not true. Can you think of a non-trivial homomorphism from $pm 1$ to $mathbb R^times$? This is even more obvious than the previous question.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks . Can't image the first map. The second is identical?
    – LOIS
    Nov 13 at 16:03










  • The first map is the sign map. So we map $a$ to $1$ if it is positive, and $-1$ if it is negative(it cannot be zero, since $0 notin mathbb R^times$). This is a homomorphism, obviously. The answer to the second one is the identity map, as you said : take $1$ to $1$ and $-1$ to $-1$, this is obviously a homomorphism again.
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Nov 13 at 16:17










  • Thanks again for your training.
    – LOIS
    Nov 14 at 7:26











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
4
down vote



accepted










A homomorphism from $G$ to $mathbb R^times$ satisfies $phi(a^n) = (phi(a))^n$ for all $a in G$ and $n in mathbb N$.



With this in mind, note that $a in G$ always satisfies $a^{|G|} = e_G$. Applying $phi$ on both sides yields $(phi(a))^{|G|} = 1$.



That is, $phi(a)$ is a real number, which satisfies $phi(a)^{|G|} = 1$, where $|G|$ is odd. This forces $phi(a) = 1$ for all $a$. So $phi$ is trivial.





Note that non-trivial homomorphisms in the reverse direction i.e. from $mathbb R^times$ to $G$ may very much exist. Can you think of an obvious map from $mathbb R^times$ to the multiplicative group $pm 1$ of two elements, for example?





Note that if $|G|$ is even, then the statement is not true. Can you think of a non-trivial homomorphism from $pm 1$ to $mathbb R^times$? This is even more obvious than the previous question.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks . Can't image the first map. The second is identical?
    – LOIS
    Nov 13 at 16:03










  • The first map is the sign map. So we map $a$ to $1$ if it is positive, and $-1$ if it is negative(it cannot be zero, since $0 notin mathbb R^times$). This is a homomorphism, obviously. The answer to the second one is the identity map, as you said : take $1$ to $1$ and $-1$ to $-1$, this is obviously a homomorphism again.
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Nov 13 at 16:17










  • Thanks again for your training.
    – LOIS
    Nov 14 at 7:26















up vote
4
down vote



accepted










A homomorphism from $G$ to $mathbb R^times$ satisfies $phi(a^n) = (phi(a))^n$ for all $a in G$ and $n in mathbb N$.



With this in mind, note that $a in G$ always satisfies $a^{|G|} = e_G$. Applying $phi$ on both sides yields $(phi(a))^{|G|} = 1$.



That is, $phi(a)$ is a real number, which satisfies $phi(a)^{|G|} = 1$, where $|G|$ is odd. This forces $phi(a) = 1$ for all $a$. So $phi$ is trivial.





Note that non-trivial homomorphisms in the reverse direction i.e. from $mathbb R^times$ to $G$ may very much exist. Can you think of an obvious map from $mathbb R^times$ to the multiplicative group $pm 1$ of two elements, for example?





Note that if $|G|$ is even, then the statement is not true. Can you think of a non-trivial homomorphism from $pm 1$ to $mathbb R^times$? This is even more obvious than the previous question.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks . Can't image the first map. The second is identical?
    – LOIS
    Nov 13 at 16:03










  • The first map is the sign map. So we map $a$ to $1$ if it is positive, and $-1$ if it is negative(it cannot be zero, since $0 notin mathbb R^times$). This is a homomorphism, obviously. The answer to the second one is the identity map, as you said : take $1$ to $1$ and $-1$ to $-1$, this is obviously a homomorphism again.
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Nov 13 at 16:17










  • Thanks again for your training.
    – LOIS
    Nov 14 at 7:26













up vote
4
down vote



accepted







up vote
4
down vote



accepted






A homomorphism from $G$ to $mathbb R^times$ satisfies $phi(a^n) = (phi(a))^n$ for all $a in G$ and $n in mathbb N$.



With this in mind, note that $a in G$ always satisfies $a^{|G|} = e_G$. Applying $phi$ on both sides yields $(phi(a))^{|G|} = 1$.



That is, $phi(a)$ is a real number, which satisfies $phi(a)^{|G|} = 1$, where $|G|$ is odd. This forces $phi(a) = 1$ for all $a$. So $phi$ is trivial.





Note that non-trivial homomorphisms in the reverse direction i.e. from $mathbb R^times$ to $G$ may very much exist. Can you think of an obvious map from $mathbb R^times$ to the multiplicative group $pm 1$ of two elements, for example?





Note that if $|G|$ is even, then the statement is not true. Can you think of a non-trivial homomorphism from $pm 1$ to $mathbb R^times$? This is even more obvious than the previous question.






share|cite|improve this answer












A homomorphism from $G$ to $mathbb R^times$ satisfies $phi(a^n) = (phi(a))^n$ for all $a in G$ and $n in mathbb N$.



With this in mind, note that $a in G$ always satisfies $a^{|G|} = e_G$. Applying $phi$ on both sides yields $(phi(a))^{|G|} = 1$.



That is, $phi(a)$ is a real number, which satisfies $phi(a)^{|G|} = 1$, where $|G|$ is odd. This forces $phi(a) = 1$ for all $a$. So $phi$ is trivial.





Note that non-trivial homomorphisms in the reverse direction i.e. from $mathbb R^times$ to $G$ may very much exist. Can you think of an obvious map from $mathbb R^times$ to the multiplicative group $pm 1$ of two elements, for example?





Note that if $|G|$ is even, then the statement is not true. Can you think of a non-trivial homomorphism from $pm 1$ to $mathbb R^times$? This is even more obvious than the previous question.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 13 at 9:00









астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг

36.3k33375




36.3k33375












  • Thanks . Can't image the first map. The second is identical?
    – LOIS
    Nov 13 at 16:03










  • The first map is the sign map. So we map $a$ to $1$ if it is positive, and $-1$ if it is negative(it cannot be zero, since $0 notin mathbb R^times$). This is a homomorphism, obviously. The answer to the second one is the identity map, as you said : take $1$ to $1$ and $-1$ to $-1$, this is obviously a homomorphism again.
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Nov 13 at 16:17










  • Thanks again for your training.
    – LOIS
    Nov 14 at 7:26


















  • Thanks . Can't image the first map. The second is identical?
    – LOIS
    Nov 13 at 16:03










  • The first map is the sign map. So we map $a$ to $1$ if it is positive, and $-1$ if it is negative(it cannot be zero, since $0 notin mathbb R^times$). This is a homomorphism, obviously. The answer to the second one is the identity map, as you said : take $1$ to $1$ and $-1$ to $-1$, this is obviously a homomorphism again.
    – астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
    Nov 13 at 16:17










  • Thanks again for your training.
    – LOIS
    Nov 14 at 7:26
















Thanks . Can't image the first map. The second is identical?
– LOIS
Nov 13 at 16:03




Thanks . Can't image the first map. The second is identical?
– LOIS
Nov 13 at 16:03












The first map is the sign map. So we map $a$ to $1$ if it is positive, and $-1$ if it is negative(it cannot be zero, since $0 notin mathbb R^times$). This is a homomorphism, obviously. The answer to the second one is the identity map, as you said : take $1$ to $1$ and $-1$ to $-1$, this is obviously a homomorphism again.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 13 at 16:17




The first map is the sign map. So we map $a$ to $1$ if it is positive, and $-1$ if it is negative(it cannot be zero, since $0 notin mathbb R^times$). This is a homomorphism, obviously. The answer to the second one is the identity map, as you said : take $1$ to $1$ and $-1$ to $-1$, this is obviously a homomorphism again.
– астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг
Nov 13 at 16:17












Thanks again for your training.
– LOIS
Nov 14 at 7:26




Thanks again for your training.
– LOIS
Nov 14 at 7:26


















 

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