Anderson’s exercise 8.3 on “generating and cogenerating”











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I am reading “Anderson and Fuller - Rings and Categories of Modules (2nd edition, 1992)”
and I am trying to find a solution of exercise 8.3 on page 112, which says:



Let $M$ be a left $R$-module. Show that if $M$ cogenerates a generator, then $M$ is faithful.



So, $M$ cogenerates a generator, say $M$ cogenerates $X$ and $X$ is a generator, where $X$ is a left R-module.



(1) $M$ cogenerates $X$, by Corollary 8.13.(1) (page 109) the reject of $M$ in $X$ is zero, that is:



$$ Rej_X (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0 $$



(2) $X$ is a generator, this means that $X$ generates $_R R$, that is, $R$ as a left $R$-module.



Then, by Corollary 8.13.(2) (page 109) the trace of $X$ in $R$ equals $R$, that is:



$$ Tr_R (X) = sum { im(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,R) } = R $$



(3) It follows that there are finitely many $f_i in Hom_R (X,R)$ and $x_i in X$, $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$ such that



$$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$



( I do not know if we need this in the proof. )



(4) Proposition 8.22 on page 111 says that the annihilator of $M$ in $R$, that is:



$$ l_R (M) = { r in R text{ | } rM = 0 } $$



equals the reject of $M$ in $R$, that is:



$$ Rej_R (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) } $$



Thus



$$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) $$



(5) Now we have to show that M is faithful, that is, the annihilator is zero, that is,



$$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $$



So, we have to prove that if $s in l_R (M) = Rej_R (M)$ then $s = 0$



Take $s in Rej_R (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) }$



Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,M)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



Also, because $ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $, we have $s in l_R (M)$



So, for all $m in M$ we have $sm = 0$



Take $x in X$



Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$ we have $h(sx) = sh(x) = 0$, because $h(x) in M$



Thus, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$, $sx in ker(h)$



Thus, by (1) above,



$sx in Rej_X (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0$



Therefore, $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$



So, $s in l_R (X) = Rej_R (X) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,X) } = 0$



Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,X)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



Now I am stuck and I do not know where I am heading to.
Can someone, please, help me to finish this proof ?










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    I am reading “Anderson and Fuller - Rings and Categories of Modules (2nd edition, 1992)”
    and I am trying to find a solution of exercise 8.3 on page 112, which says:



    Let $M$ be a left $R$-module. Show that if $M$ cogenerates a generator, then $M$ is faithful.



    So, $M$ cogenerates a generator, say $M$ cogenerates $X$ and $X$ is a generator, where $X$ is a left R-module.



    (1) $M$ cogenerates $X$, by Corollary 8.13.(1) (page 109) the reject of $M$ in $X$ is zero, that is:



    $$ Rej_X (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0 $$



    (2) $X$ is a generator, this means that $X$ generates $_R R$, that is, $R$ as a left $R$-module.



    Then, by Corollary 8.13.(2) (page 109) the trace of $X$ in $R$ equals $R$, that is:



    $$ Tr_R (X) = sum { im(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,R) } = R $$



    (3) It follows that there are finitely many $f_i in Hom_R (X,R)$ and $x_i in X$, $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$ such that



    $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$



    ( I do not know if we need this in the proof. )



    (4) Proposition 8.22 on page 111 says that the annihilator of $M$ in $R$, that is:



    $$ l_R (M) = { r in R text{ | } rM = 0 } $$



    equals the reject of $M$ in $R$, that is:



    $$ Rej_R (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) } $$



    Thus



    $$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) $$



    (5) Now we have to show that M is faithful, that is, the annihilator is zero, that is,



    $$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $$



    So, we have to prove that if $s in l_R (M) = Rej_R (M)$ then $s = 0$



    Take $s in Rej_R (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) }$



    Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,M)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



    Also, because $ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $, we have $s in l_R (M)$



    So, for all $m in M$ we have $sm = 0$



    Take $x in X$



    Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$ we have $h(sx) = sh(x) = 0$, because $h(x) in M$



    Thus, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$, $sx in ker(h)$



    Thus, by (1) above,



    $sx in Rej_X (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0$



    Therefore, $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$



    So, $s in l_R (X) = Rej_R (X) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,X) } = 0$



    Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,X)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



    Now I am stuck and I do not know where I am heading to.
    Can someone, please, help me to finish this proof ?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      I am reading “Anderson and Fuller - Rings and Categories of Modules (2nd edition, 1992)”
      and I am trying to find a solution of exercise 8.3 on page 112, which says:



      Let $M$ be a left $R$-module. Show that if $M$ cogenerates a generator, then $M$ is faithful.



      So, $M$ cogenerates a generator, say $M$ cogenerates $X$ and $X$ is a generator, where $X$ is a left R-module.



      (1) $M$ cogenerates $X$, by Corollary 8.13.(1) (page 109) the reject of $M$ in $X$ is zero, that is:



      $$ Rej_X (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0 $$



      (2) $X$ is a generator, this means that $X$ generates $_R R$, that is, $R$ as a left $R$-module.



      Then, by Corollary 8.13.(2) (page 109) the trace of $X$ in $R$ equals $R$, that is:



      $$ Tr_R (X) = sum { im(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,R) } = R $$



      (3) It follows that there are finitely many $f_i in Hom_R (X,R)$ and $x_i in X$, $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$ such that



      $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$



      ( I do not know if we need this in the proof. )



      (4) Proposition 8.22 on page 111 says that the annihilator of $M$ in $R$, that is:



      $$ l_R (M) = { r in R text{ | } rM = 0 } $$



      equals the reject of $M$ in $R$, that is:



      $$ Rej_R (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) } $$



      Thus



      $$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) $$



      (5) Now we have to show that M is faithful, that is, the annihilator is zero, that is,



      $$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $$



      So, we have to prove that if $s in l_R (M) = Rej_R (M)$ then $s = 0$



      Take $s in Rej_R (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) }$



      Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,M)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



      Also, because $ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $, we have $s in l_R (M)$



      So, for all $m in M$ we have $sm = 0$



      Take $x in X$



      Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$ we have $h(sx) = sh(x) = 0$, because $h(x) in M$



      Thus, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$, $sx in ker(h)$



      Thus, by (1) above,



      $sx in Rej_X (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0$



      Therefore, $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$



      So, $s in l_R (X) = Rej_R (X) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,X) } = 0$



      Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,X)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



      Now I am stuck and I do not know where I am heading to.
      Can someone, please, help me to finish this proof ?










      share|cite|improve this question













      I am reading “Anderson and Fuller - Rings and Categories of Modules (2nd edition, 1992)”
      and I am trying to find a solution of exercise 8.3 on page 112, which says:



      Let $M$ be a left $R$-module. Show that if $M$ cogenerates a generator, then $M$ is faithful.



      So, $M$ cogenerates a generator, say $M$ cogenerates $X$ and $X$ is a generator, where $X$ is a left R-module.



      (1) $M$ cogenerates $X$, by Corollary 8.13.(1) (page 109) the reject of $M$ in $X$ is zero, that is:



      $$ Rej_X (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0 $$



      (2) $X$ is a generator, this means that $X$ generates $_R R$, that is, $R$ as a left $R$-module.



      Then, by Corollary 8.13.(2) (page 109) the trace of $X$ in $R$ equals $R$, that is:



      $$ Tr_R (X) = sum { im(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,R) } = R $$



      (3) It follows that there are finitely many $f_i in Hom_R (X,R)$ and $x_i in X$, $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$ such that



      $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$



      ( I do not know if we need this in the proof. )



      (4) Proposition 8.22 on page 111 says that the annihilator of $M$ in $R$, that is:



      $$ l_R (M) = { r in R text{ | } rM = 0 } $$



      equals the reject of $M$ in $R$, that is:



      $$ Rej_R (M) = bigcap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) } $$



      Thus



      $$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) $$



      (5) Now we have to show that M is faithful, that is, the annihilator is zero, that is,



      $$ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $$



      So, we have to prove that if $s in l_R (M) = Rej_R (M)$ then $s = 0$



      Take $s in Rej_R (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,M) }$



      Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,M)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



      Also, because $ l_R (M) = Rej_R (M) = 0 $, we have $s in l_R (M)$



      So, for all $m in M$ we have $sm = 0$



      Take $x in X$



      Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$ we have $h(sx) = sh(x) = 0$, because $h(x) in M$



      Thus, for all $ h in Hom_R (X,M)$, $sx in ker(h)$



      Thus, by (1) above,



      $sx in Rej_X (M) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (X,M) } = 0$



      Therefore, $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$



      So, $s in l_R (X) = Rej_R (X) = cap { ker(h) text{ | } h in Hom_R (R,X) } = 0$



      Then, for all $ h in Hom_R (R,X)$ we have $h(s) = 0$



      Now I am stuck and I do not know where I am heading to.
      Can someone, please, help me to finish this proof ?







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      asked Nov 14 at 19:09









      Steenis

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          2 Answers
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          Saying that $M$ cogenerates a generator $G$ means that $G$ embeds in a direct product of copies of $M$. Indeed, since $operatorname{Rej}_G(M)=0$, if we take all homomorphisms $fcolon Gto M$, the natural map
          $$
          Gto M^{operatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}
          $$

          defined by $xmapsto (f(x))_{finoperatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}$ has zero kernel.



          If $r$ annihilates $M$, then it also annihilates $G$. Since a generator is necessarily faithful, then $r=0$. Therefore $M$ is faithful as well.



          Why is a generator $G$ faithful? Because $R$ (as a left $R$-module) is an epimorphic image of a direct sum of copies of $G$, thus any $r$ that annihilates $G$ has to annihilate $R$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for your answer. I am working on it, That will take a while.
            – Steenis
            Nov 15 at 12:15










          • I do understand your answer, thank you.
            – Steenis
            Nov 18 at 13:34










          • @Steenis When an answer is useful it should be upvoted so as to push it from the list of unanswered questions.
            – egreg
            Nov 18 at 16:43


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          I found the answer in line of my argument in my original post,



          and I am embarrassed because I was so close and I did not see it.



          We proved $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$, and we have to show that $s=0$



          In (3) we found
          $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$
          So
          $$s = f_1 (s x_1) + f_2 (s x_2) + cdots + f_n(s x_n)$$



          Then, for each $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$: $ s x_i=0 $, because $x_i in X$ thus



          $$s = f_1 (0) + f_2 (0) + cdots + f_n(0) = 0$$



          Now, we are ready, because thie proves that $M$ is faithful






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






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            oldest

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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            up vote
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            down vote













            Saying that $M$ cogenerates a generator $G$ means that $G$ embeds in a direct product of copies of $M$. Indeed, since $operatorname{Rej}_G(M)=0$, if we take all homomorphisms $fcolon Gto M$, the natural map
            $$
            Gto M^{operatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}
            $$

            defined by $xmapsto (f(x))_{finoperatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}$ has zero kernel.



            If $r$ annihilates $M$, then it also annihilates $G$. Since a generator is necessarily faithful, then $r=0$. Therefore $M$ is faithful as well.



            Why is a generator $G$ faithful? Because $R$ (as a left $R$-module) is an epimorphic image of a direct sum of copies of $G$, thus any $r$ that annihilates $G$ has to annihilate $R$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Thank you for your answer. I am working on it, That will take a while.
              – Steenis
              Nov 15 at 12:15










            • I do understand your answer, thank you.
              – Steenis
              Nov 18 at 13:34










            • @Steenis When an answer is useful it should be upvoted so as to push it from the list of unanswered questions.
              – egreg
              Nov 18 at 16:43















            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Saying that $M$ cogenerates a generator $G$ means that $G$ embeds in a direct product of copies of $M$. Indeed, since $operatorname{Rej}_G(M)=0$, if we take all homomorphisms $fcolon Gto M$, the natural map
            $$
            Gto M^{operatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}
            $$

            defined by $xmapsto (f(x))_{finoperatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}$ has zero kernel.



            If $r$ annihilates $M$, then it also annihilates $G$. Since a generator is necessarily faithful, then $r=0$. Therefore $M$ is faithful as well.



            Why is a generator $G$ faithful? Because $R$ (as a left $R$-module) is an epimorphic image of a direct sum of copies of $G$, thus any $r$ that annihilates $G$ has to annihilate $R$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Thank you for your answer. I am working on it, That will take a while.
              – Steenis
              Nov 15 at 12:15










            • I do understand your answer, thank you.
              – Steenis
              Nov 18 at 13:34










            • @Steenis When an answer is useful it should be upvoted so as to push it from the list of unanswered questions.
              – egreg
              Nov 18 at 16:43













            up vote
            1
            down vote










            up vote
            1
            down vote









            Saying that $M$ cogenerates a generator $G$ means that $G$ embeds in a direct product of copies of $M$. Indeed, since $operatorname{Rej}_G(M)=0$, if we take all homomorphisms $fcolon Gto M$, the natural map
            $$
            Gto M^{operatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}
            $$

            defined by $xmapsto (f(x))_{finoperatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}$ has zero kernel.



            If $r$ annihilates $M$, then it also annihilates $G$. Since a generator is necessarily faithful, then $r=0$. Therefore $M$ is faithful as well.



            Why is a generator $G$ faithful? Because $R$ (as a left $R$-module) is an epimorphic image of a direct sum of copies of $G$, thus any $r$ that annihilates $G$ has to annihilate $R$.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Saying that $M$ cogenerates a generator $G$ means that $G$ embeds in a direct product of copies of $M$. Indeed, since $operatorname{Rej}_G(M)=0$, if we take all homomorphisms $fcolon Gto M$, the natural map
            $$
            Gto M^{operatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}
            $$

            defined by $xmapsto (f(x))_{finoperatorname{Hom}_R(G,M)}$ has zero kernel.



            If $r$ annihilates $M$, then it also annihilates $G$. Since a generator is necessarily faithful, then $r=0$. Therefore $M$ is faithful as well.



            Why is a generator $G$ faithful? Because $R$ (as a left $R$-module) is an epimorphic image of a direct sum of copies of $G$, thus any $r$ that annihilates $G$ has to annihilate $R$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 14 at 21:34









            egreg

            174k1383198




            174k1383198












            • Thank you for your answer. I am working on it, That will take a while.
              – Steenis
              Nov 15 at 12:15










            • I do understand your answer, thank you.
              – Steenis
              Nov 18 at 13:34










            • @Steenis When an answer is useful it should be upvoted so as to push it from the list of unanswered questions.
              – egreg
              Nov 18 at 16:43


















            • Thank you for your answer. I am working on it, That will take a while.
              – Steenis
              Nov 15 at 12:15










            • I do understand your answer, thank you.
              – Steenis
              Nov 18 at 13:34










            • @Steenis When an answer is useful it should be upvoted so as to push it from the list of unanswered questions.
              – egreg
              Nov 18 at 16:43
















            Thank you for your answer. I am working on it, That will take a while.
            – Steenis
            Nov 15 at 12:15




            Thank you for your answer. I am working on it, That will take a while.
            – Steenis
            Nov 15 at 12:15












            I do understand your answer, thank you.
            – Steenis
            Nov 18 at 13:34




            I do understand your answer, thank you.
            – Steenis
            Nov 18 at 13:34












            @Steenis When an answer is useful it should be upvoted so as to push it from the list of unanswered questions.
            – egreg
            Nov 18 at 16:43




            @Steenis When an answer is useful it should be upvoted so as to push it from the list of unanswered questions.
            – egreg
            Nov 18 at 16:43










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            I found the answer in line of my argument in my original post,



            and I am embarrassed because I was so close and I did not see it.



            We proved $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$, and we have to show that $s=0$



            In (3) we found
            $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$
            So
            $$s = f_1 (s x_1) + f_2 (s x_2) + cdots + f_n(s x_n)$$



            Then, for each $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$: $ s x_i=0 $, because $x_i in X$ thus



            $$s = f_1 (0) + f_2 (0) + cdots + f_n(0) = 0$$



            Now, we are ready, because thie proves that $M$ is faithful






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              I found the answer in line of my argument in my original post,



              and I am embarrassed because I was so close and I did not see it.



              We proved $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$, and we have to show that $s=0$



              In (3) we found
              $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$
              So
              $$s = f_1 (s x_1) + f_2 (s x_2) + cdots + f_n(s x_n)$$



              Then, for each $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$: $ s x_i=0 $, because $x_i in X$ thus



              $$s = f_1 (0) + f_2 (0) + cdots + f_n(0) = 0$$



              Now, we are ready, because thie proves that $M$ is faithful






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                I found the answer in line of my argument in my original post,



                and I am embarrassed because I was so close and I did not see it.



                We proved $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$, and we have to show that $s=0$



                In (3) we found
                $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$
                So
                $$s = f_1 (s x_1) + f_2 (s x_2) + cdots + f_n(s x_n)$$



                Then, for each $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$: $ s x_i=0 $, because $x_i in X$ thus



                $$s = f_1 (0) + f_2 (0) + cdots + f_n(0) = 0$$



                Now, we are ready, because thie proves that $M$ is faithful






                share|cite|improve this answer












                I found the answer in line of my argument in my original post,



                and I am embarrassed because I was so close and I did not see it.



                We proved $sx = 0$, for all $x in X$, and we have to show that $s=0$



                In (3) we found
                $$1 = f_1 (x_1) + f_2 (x_2) + cdots + f_n(x_n)$$
                So
                $$s = f_1 (s x_1) + f_2 (s x_2) + cdots + f_n(s x_n)$$



                Then, for each $i=1, 2, cdots ,n$: $ s x_i=0 $, because $x_i in X$ thus



                $$s = f_1 (0) + f_2 (0) + cdots + f_n(0) = 0$$



                Now, we are ready, because thie proves that $M$ is faithful







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 18 at 13:41









                Steenis

                7917




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