equivalence of definitions












0












$begingroup$


Why are both definitions equivalent?



Random variable $X $ is called Infinite divisible if for each $n in N $ there exist iid random variables $X_1,dots X_n $ such that $X=frac1n sum X_i$ or the same without $frac1n $. The latter is the one I am familiar with.
for example if $Xsim poisson (lambda) $ then we can pick $ X_i sim poisson (lambda /n) $ but with the other definition it is not possible.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Why are both definitions equivalent?



    Random variable $X $ is called Infinite divisible if for each $n in N $ there exist iid random variables $X_1,dots X_n $ such that $X=frac1n sum X_i$ or the same without $frac1n $. The latter is the one I am familiar with.
    for example if $Xsim poisson (lambda) $ then we can pick $ X_i sim poisson (lambda /n) $ but with the other definition it is not possible.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Why are both definitions equivalent?



      Random variable $X $ is called Infinite divisible if for each $n in N $ there exist iid random variables $X_1,dots X_n $ such that $X=frac1n sum X_i$ or the same without $frac1n $. The latter is the one I am familiar with.
      for example if $Xsim poisson (lambda) $ then we can pick $ X_i sim poisson (lambda /n) $ but with the other definition it is not possible.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Why are both definitions equivalent?



      Random variable $X $ is called Infinite divisible if for each $n in N $ there exist iid random variables $X_1,dots X_n $ such that $X=frac1n sum X_i$ or the same without $frac1n $. The latter is the one I am familiar with.
      for example if $Xsim poisson (lambda) $ then we can pick $ X_i sim poisson (lambda /n) $ but with the other definition it is not possible.







      probability-theory






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 28 '18 at 16:55









      Joey DoeyJoey Doey

      1155




      1155






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          If you can find $X_1,X_2,dots,X_n$ such that $X=frac{1}{n}sum X_i$ then we can simply choose $Y_i=X_i/n$ and we have $X=sum Y_i$.



          One can do something analogous in the other direction.



          So both definitions are equivalent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            but what would be $X_i $ in my case if X is poison distributed. I am only able to find the distribution of $ X_i /n $ but not $X_i $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:45










          • $begingroup$
            or is it not possible to find the distribution of $X_i$ but only the distribution of $X_i/n $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            the $X_i$ would be $frac{1}{n}poisson(lambda/n)$
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            if you know the distribution of random variable $X$ then you can find the distribution of $frac{1}{n}X$ rather easily.
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:48











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          active

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          $begingroup$

          If you can find $X_1,X_2,dots,X_n$ such that $X=frac{1}{n}sum X_i$ then we can simply choose $Y_i=X_i/n$ and we have $X=sum Y_i$.



          One can do something analogous in the other direction.



          So both definitions are equivalent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            but what would be $X_i $ in my case if X is poison distributed. I am only able to find the distribution of $ X_i /n $ but not $X_i $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:45










          • $begingroup$
            or is it not possible to find the distribution of $X_i$ but only the distribution of $X_i/n $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            the $X_i$ would be $frac{1}{n}poisson(lambda/n)$
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            if you know the distribution of random variable $X$ then you can find the distribution of $frac{1}{n}X$ rather easily.
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:48
















          1












          $begingroup$

          If you can find $X_1,X_2,dots,X_n$ such that $X=frac{1}{n}sum X_i$ then we can simply choose $Y_i=X_i/n$ and we have $X=sum Y_i$.



          One can do something analogous in the other direction.



          So both definitions are equivalent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            but what would be $X_i $ in my case if X is poison distributed. I am only able to find the distribution of $ X_i /n $ but not $X_i $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:45










          • $begingroup$
            or is it not possible to find the distribution of $X_i$ but only the distribution of $X_i/n $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            the $X_i$ would be $frac{1}{n}poisson(lambda/n)$
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            if you know the distribution of random variable $X$ then you can find the distribution of $frac{1}{n}X$ rather easily.
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:48














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          If you can find $X_1,X_2,dots,X_n$ such that $X=frac{1}{n}sum X_i$ then we can simply choose $Y_i=X_i/n$ and we have $X=sum Y_i$.



          One can do something analogous in the other direction.



          So both definitions are equivalent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          If you can find $X_1,X_2,dots,X_n$ such that $X=frac{1}{n}sum X_i$ then we can simply choose $Y_i=X_i/n$ and we have $X=sum Y_i$.



          One can do something analogous in the other direction.



          So both definitions are equivalent.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 28 '18 at 17:00









          Jorge FernándezJorge Fernández

          75.3k1191192




          75.3k1191192












          • $begingroup$
            but what would be $X_i $ in my case if X is poison distributed. I am only able to find the distribution of $ X_i /n $ but not $X_i $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:45










          • $begingroup$
            or is it not possible to find the distribution of $X_i$ but only the distribution of $X_i/n $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            the $X_i$ would be $frac{1}{n}poisson(lambda/n)$
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            if you know the distribution of random variable $X$ then you can find the distribution of $frac{1}{n}X$ rather easily.
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:48


















          • $begingroup$
            but what would be $X_i $ in my case if X is poison distributed. I am only able to find the distribution of $ X_i /n $ but not $X_i $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:45










          • $begingroup$
            or is it not possible to find the distribution of $X_i$ but only the distribution of $X_i/n $
            $endgroup$
            – Joey Doey
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            the $X_i$ would be $frac{1}{n}poisson(lambda/n)$
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:47










          • $begingroup$
            if you know the distribution of random variable $X$ then you can find the distribution of $frac{1}{n}X$ rather easily.
            $endgroup$
            – Jorge Fernández
            Nov 28 '18 at 17:48
















          $begingroup$
          but what would be $X_i $ in my case if X is poison distributed. I am only able to find the distribution of $ X_i /n $ but not $X_i $
          $endgroup$
          – Joey Doey
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:45




          $begingroup$
          but what would be $X_i $ in my case if X is poison distributed. I am only able to find the distribution of $ X_i /n $ but not $X_i $
          $endgroup$
          – Joey Doey
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:45












          $begingroup$
          or is it not possible to find the distribution of $X_i$ but only the distribution of $X_i/n $
          $endgroup$
          – Joey Doey
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:47




          $begingroup$
          or is it not possible to find the distribution of $X_i$ but only the distribution of $X_i/n $
          $endgroup$
          – Joey Doey
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:47












          $begingroup$
          the $X_i$ would be $frac{1}{n}poisson(lambda/n)$
          $endgroup$
          – Jorge Fernández
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:47




          $begingroup$
          the $X_i$ would be $frac{1}{n}poisson(lambda/n)$
          $endgroup$
          – Jorge Fernández
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:47












          $begingroup$
          if you know the distribution of random variable $X$ then you can find the distribution of $frac{1}{n}X$ rather easily.
          $endgroup$
          – Jorge Fernández
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:48




          $begingroup$
          if you know the distribution of random variable $X$ then you can find the distribution of $frac{1}{n}X$ rather easily.
          $endgroup$
          – Jorge Fernández
          Nov 28 '18 at 17:48


















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