Representing positive integers as floor of integer powers of real number.












3












$begingroup$


Does there exist real $a$ such that for every positive integer $c$ there exists integer $b$ such that $lfloor{a^b}rfloor = c$?










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean a single $a$ for all $b,c$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:09










  • $begingroup$
    I've edited the question, sorry for my mistake. Yes, one $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user4201961
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:11


















3












$begingroup$


Does there exist real $a$ such that for every positive integer $c$ there exists integer $b$ such that $lfloor{a^b}rfloor = c$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean a single $a$ for all $b,c$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:09










  • $begingroup$
    I've edited the question, sorry for my mistake. Yes, one $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user4201961
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:11
















3












3








3


1



$begingroup$


Does there exist real $a$ such that for every positive integer $c$ there exists integer $b$ such that $lfloor{a^b}rfloor = c$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Does there exist real $a$ such that for every positive integer $c$ there exists integer $b$ such that $lfloor{a^b}rfloor = c$?







exponentiation






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 27 '18 at 10:11







user4201961

















asked Nov 27 '18 at 10:06









user4201961user4201961

730411




730411








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean a single $a$ for all $b,c$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:09










  • $begingroup$
    I've edited the question, sorry for my mistake. Yes, one $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user4201961
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:11
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You mean a single $a$ for all $b,c$?
    $endgroup$
    – gammatester
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:09










  • $begingroup$
    I've edited the question, sorry for my mistake. Yes, one $a$.
    $endgroup$
    – user4201961
    Nov 27 '18 at 10:11










1




1




$begingroup$
You mean a single $a$ for all $b,c$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Nov 27 '18 at 10:09




$begingroup$
You mean a single $a$ for all $b,c$?
$endgroup$
– gammatester
Nov 27 '18 at 10:09












$begingroup$
I've edited the question, sorry for my mistake. Yes, one $a$.
$endgroup$
– user4201961
Nov 27 '18 at 10:11






$begingroup$
I've edited the question, sorry for my mistake. Yes, one $a$.
$endgroup$
– user4201961
Nov 27 '18 at 10:11












1 Answer
1






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oldest

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$begingroup$

No.



The simplest way to see why the answer is no is the fact that, for $a>1$, you have



$$lim_{btoinfty} (a^b-a^{b-1}) = infty$$



(which you can see is true since $a^b-a^{b-1} = a^{b-1}(a-1)$)



The limit tells you that, for large enough values of $b$, you will have $a^b-a^{b-1}>2$ which means that there must be at least one integer $n$ between $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor$ and $lfloor a^brfloor$ (that is, $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor<n<lfloor a^brfloor$. Couple that with the fact that $lfloor a^brfloor$ is an increasing sequence, and you are done, because $$forall b: lfloor a^brfloorneq n$$






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    active

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    2












    $begingroup$

    No.



    The simplest way to see why the answer is no is the fact that, for $a>1$, you have



    $$lim_{btoinfty} (a^b-a^{b-1}) = infty$$



    (which you can see is true since $a^b-a^{b-1} = a^{b-1}(a-1)$)



    The limit tells you that, for large enough values of $b$, you will have $a^b-a^{b-1}>2$ which means that there must be at least one integer $n$ between $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor$ and $lfloor a^brfloor$ (that is, $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor<n<lfloor a^brfloor$. Couple that with the fact that $lfloor a^brfloor$ is an increasing sequence, and you are done, because $$forall b: lfloor a^brfloorneq n$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      No.



      The simplest way to see why the answer is no is the fact that, for $a>1$, you have



      $$lim_{btoinfty} (a^b-a^{b-1}) = infty$$



      (which you can see is true since $a^b-a^{b-1} = a^{b-1}(a-1)$)



      The limit tells you that, for large enough values of $b$, you will have $a^b-a^{b-1}>2$ which means that there must be at least one integer $n$ between $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor$ and $lfloor a^brfloor$ (that is, $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor<n<lfloor a^brfloor$. Couple that with the fact that $lfloor a^brfloor$ is an increasing sequence, and you are done, because $$forall b: lfloor a^brfloorneq n$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        No.



        The simplest way to see why the answer is no is the fact that, for $a>1$, you have



        $$lim_{btoinfty} (a^b-a^{b-1}) = infty$$



        (which you can see is true since $a^b-a^{b-1} = a^{b-1}(a-1)$)



        The limit tells you that, for large enough values of $b$, you will have $a^b-a^{b-1}>2$ which means that there must be at least one integer $n$ between $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor$ and $lfloor a^brfloor$ (that is, $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor<n<lfloor a^brfloor$. Couple that with the fact that $lfloor a^brfloor$ is an increasing sequence, and you are done, because $$forall b: lfloor a^brfloorneq n$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        No.



        The simplest way to see why the answer is no is the fact that, for $a>1$, you have



        $$lim_{btoinfty} (a^b-a^{b-1}) = infty$$



        (which you can see is true since $a^b-a^{b-1} = a^{b-1}(a-1)$)



        The limit tells you that, for large enough values of $b$, you will have $a^b-a^{b-1}>2$ which means that there must be at least one integer $n$ between $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor$ and $lfloor a^brfloor$ (that is, $lfloor a^{b-1}rfloor<n<lfloor a^brfloor$. Couple that with the fact that $lfloor a^brfloor$ is an increasing sequence, and you are done, because $$forall b: lfloor a^brfloorneq n$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 27 '18 at 10:21









        5xum5xum

        90.2k394161




        90.2k394161






























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