Problem understanding Milnor Proof: (Theorem 1, Vector Fields chapter)












10












$begingroup$


(THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN EDITED)



I am reading Milnor's ''Topology From a Differentiable Viewpoint'' and in the chapter about vector fields, page 38, there is a theorem that states that:



Given any vector field $v$ on $M subset mathbb{R^n}$, ($M$ an m-dimensional, compact boundaryless manifold) with only nondegenerate zeros, then the index sum of $v$ is equal to the degree of the Gauss mapping.



So, I am going to avoid writing the proof (if anyone needs it to give a better answer I will write it, just prefer to avoid this if not necessary).



You have:




  1. $N_{epsilon}$ a closed $epsilon$-neighborhood of $M$


  2. $r$: $N_{epsilon} to M$, a differentiable map that maps $x$ to the point in $M$, closest to $x$. (Making $epsilon $ small enough this works well)


  3. $w$ a vector field in $N_{epsilon}$ that extends $v$, given by: $w(x)= (x-r(x))+v(r(x))$



So.. What I think Milnor is trying to do, is to use Hopf's lemma (Lemma 3 in the book),you can see that $w$ points outwards along the boundary and if it has a zero, it must be a zero of $v$ (since $x-r(x)$ and $v(r(x))$ are orthogonal), so all its zeros are isolated, then you are in condition to apply Hopf's lemma.



Now he states that: For any $z in M$



$d_zw(h)= d_zv(h) $ in $T_zM$



and



$d_zw(h)=h$ in $T_zM$'s orthogonal complement.



So... maybe it is easy to see, but I cannot see why this is. Trying to calculate $frac{partial w_i}{partial x_j}$ for arbitrary $i,j$ seems usless, since I do not know how to calculate the derivative of $r(x)$. This is my first doubt.



My second doubt.. Supposing that the previous statement is true, do you have that $d_zw$ and $d_zv$ have the same determinant at any $z$, zero of $w$, hence the same index. Now Milnor uses Hopf's Lemma, to prove that the index sum of $w$ is equal the Gauss mapping. To finish this off I need to see that $v$ has the same zeros than $w$, why is this true? (You know that a zero of $w$ is a zero of $v$, why is the reciprocal true?)



I am really stuck with this, any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.



(FROM HERE ON I EDITED IT)



So... I am going to answer my second doubt: If $z$ is a zero of $v$, then $z in M$ so $r(z)=z$ and thus $w(z)=v(z)=0$



And for my first doubt, I was thinking that I never used that $v$ has non-degenerate zeros (Or so I think), so maybe that is a hint to anwering my first doubt, cannot seem to see it though. If I had used that $v$ has only non-degenerate zeros, please tell me where. Thanks in advance.










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$endgroup$

















    10












    $begingroup$


    (THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN EDITED)



    I am reading Milnor's ''Topology From a Differentiable Viewpoint'' and in the chapter about vector fields, page 38, there is a theorem that states that:



    Given any vector field $v$ on $M subset mathbb{R^n}$, ($M$ an m-dimensional, compact boundaryless manifold) with only nondegenerate zeros, then the index sum of $v$ is equal to the degree of the Gauss mapping.



    So, I am going to avoid writing the proof (if anyone needs it to give a better answer I will write it, just prefer to avoid this if not necessary).



    You have:




    1. $N_{epsilon}$ a closed $epsilon$-neighborhood of $M$


    2. $r$: $N_{epsilon} to M$, a differentiable map that maps $x$ to the point in $M$, closest to $x$. (Making $epsilon $ small enough this works well)


    3. $w$ a vector field in $N_{epsilon}$ that extends $v$, given by: $w(x)= (x-r(x))+v(r(x))$



    So.. What I think Milnor is trying to do, is to use Hopf's lemma (Lemma 3 in the book),you can see that $w$ points outwards along the boundary and if it has a zero, it must be a zero of $v$ (since $x-r(x)$ and $v(r(x))$ are orthogonal), so all its zeros are isolated, then you are in condition to apply Hopf's lemma.



    Now he states that: For any $z in M$



    $d_zw(h)= d_zv(h) $ in $T_zM$



    and



    $d_zw(h)=h$ in $T_zM$'s orthogonal complement.



    So... maybe it is easy to see, but I cannot see why this is. Trying to calculate $frac{partial w_i}{partial x_j}$ for arbitrary $i,j$ seems usless, since I do not know how to calculate the derivative of $r(x)$. This is my first doubt.



    My second doubt.. Supposing that the previous statement is true, do you have that $d_zw$ and $d_zv$ have the same determinant at any $z$, zero of $w$, hence the same index. Now Milnor uses Hopf's Lemma, to prove that the index sum of $w$ is equal the Gauss mapping. To finish this off I need to see that $v$ has the same zeros than $w$, why is this true? (You know that a zero of $w$ is a zero of $v$, why is the reciprocal true?)



    I am really stuck with this, any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.



    (FROM HERE ON I EDITED IT)



    So... I am going to answer my second doubt: If $z$ is a zero of $v$, then $z in M$ so $r(z)=z$ and thus $w(z)=v(z)=0$



    And for my first doubt, I was thinking that I never used that $v$ has non-degenerate zeros (Or so I think), so maybe that is a hint to anwering my first doubt, cannot seem to see it though. If I had used that $v$ has only non-degenerate zeros, please tell me where. Thanks in advance.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      10












      10








      10


      1



      $begingroup$


      (THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN EDITED)



      I am reading Milnor's ''Topology From a Differentiable Viewpoint'' and in the chapter about vector fields, page 38, there is a theorem that states that:



      Given any vector field $v$ on $M subset mathbb{R^n}$, ($M$ an m-dimensional, compact boundaryless manifold) with only nondegenerate zeros, then the index sum of $v$ is equal to the degree of the Gauss mapping.



      So, I am going to avoid writing the proof (if anyone needs it to give a better answer I will write it, just prefer to avoid this if not necessary).



      You have:




      1. $N_{epsilon}$ a closed $epsilon$-neighborhood of $M$


      2. $r$: $N_{epsilon} to M$, a differentiable map that maps $x$ to the point in $M$, closest to $x$. (Making $epsilon $ small enough this works well)


      3. $w$ a vector field in $N_{epsilon}$ that extends $v$, given by: $w(x)= (x-r(x))+v(r(x))$



      So.. What I think Milnor is trying to do, is to use Hopf's lemma (Lemma 3 in the book),you can see that $w$ points outwards along the boundary and if it has a zero, it must be a zero of $v$ (since $x-r(x)$ and $v(r(x))$ are orthogonal), so all its zeros are isolated, then you are in condition to apply Hopf's lemma.



      Now he states that: For any $z in M$



      $d_zw(h)= d_zv(h) $ in $T_zM$



      and



      $d_zw(h)=h$ in $T_zM$'s orthogonal complement.



      So... maybe it is easy to see, but I cannot see why this is. Trying to calculate $frac{partial w_i}{partial x_j}$ for arbitrary $i,j$ seems usless, since I do not know how to calculate the derivative of $r(x)$. This is my first doubt.



      My second doubt.. Supposing that the previous statement is true, do you have that $d_zw$ and $d_zv$ have the same determinant at any $z$, zero of $w$, hence the same index. Now Milnor uses Hopf's Lemma, to prove that the index sum of $w$ is equal the Gauss mapping. To finish this off I need to see that $v$ has the same zeros than $w$, why is this true? (You know that a zero of $w$ is a zero of $v$, why is the reciprocal true?)



      I am really stuck with this, any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.



      (FROM HERE ON I EDITED IT)



      So... I am going to answer my second doubt: If $z$ is a zero of $v$, then $z in M$ so $r(z)=z$ and thus $w(z)=v(z)=0$



      And for my first doubt, I was thinking that I never used that $v$ has non-degenerate zeros (Or so I think), so maybe that is a hint to anwering my first doubt, cannot seem to see it though. If I had used that $v$ has only non-degenerate zeros, please tell me where. Thanks in advance.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      (THIS QUESTION HAS BEEN EDITED)



      I am reading Milnor's ''Topology From a Differentiable Viewpoint'' and in the chapter about vector fields, page 38, there is a theorem that states that:



      Given any vector field $v$ on $M subset mathbb{R^n}$, ($M$ an m-dimensional, compact boundaryless manifold) with only nondegenerate zeros, then the index sum of $v$ is equal to the degree of the Gauss mapping.



      So, I am going to avoid writing the proof (if anyone needs it to give a better answer I will write it, just prefer to avoid this if not necessary).



      You have:




      1. $N_{epsilon}$ a closed $epsilon$-neighborhood of $M$


      2. $r$: $N_{epsilon} to M$, a differentiable map that maps $x$ to the point in $M$, closest to $x$. (Making $epsilon $ small enough this works well)


      3. $w$ a vector field in $N_{epsilon}$ that extends $v$, given by: $w(x)= (x-r(x))+v(r(x))$



      So.. What I think Milnor is trying to do, is to use Hopf's lemma (Lemma 3 in the book),you can see that $w$ points outwards along the boundary and if it has a zero, it must be a zero of $v$ (since $x-r(x)$ and $v(r(x))$ are orthogonal), so all its zeros are isolated, then you are in condition to apply Hopf's lemma.



      Now he states that: For any $z in M$



      $d_zw(h)= d_zv(h) $ in $T_zM$



      and



      $d_zw(h)=h$ in $T_zM$'s orthogonal complement.



      So... maybe it is easy to see, but I cannot see why this is. Trying to calculate $frac{partial w_i}{partial x_j}$ for arbitrary $i,j$ seems usless, since I do not know how to calculate the derivative of $r(x)$. This is my first doubt.



      My second doubt.. Supposing that the previous statement is true, do you have that $d_zw$ and $d_zv$ have the same determinant at any $z$, zero of $w$, hence the same index. Now Milnor uses Hopf's Lemma, to prove that the index sum of $w$ is equal the Gauss mapping. To finish this off I need to see that $v$ has the same zeros than $w$, why is this true? (You know that a zero of $w$ is a zero of $v$, why is the reciprocal true?)



      I am really stuck with this, any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.



      (FROM HERE ON I EDITED IT)



      So... I am going to answer my second doubt: If $z$ is a zero of $v$, then $z in M$ so $r(z)=z$ and thus $w(z)=v(z)=0$



      And for my first doubt, I was thinking that I never used that $v$ has non-degenerate zeros (Or so I think), so maybe that is a hint to anwering my first doubt, cannot seem to see it though. If I had used that $v$ has only non-degenerate zeros, please tell me where. Thanks in advance.







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      edited Dec 18 '18 at 20:17









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      asked Nov 25 '18 at 21:43









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