Divisors of $-1$ are only $1$ and $-1$?












1












$begingroup$


I'm working through a discrete math textbook and I've come across this question with answer:



Prove that the only divisors of $−1$ are $−1$ and $1$.



Answer:



We established that $1$ divides any number; hence, it divides $−1$, and any nonzero number divides itself. Thus, $1$ and $−1$ are divisors of $−1$. To show that these are the only ones, we take $d$, a positive divisor of $−1$. Thus, $dk = −1$ for some integer $k$, and $(−1)dk = d(−k) = (−1)(−1) = 1$; hence, $dmid 1$, and the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$. Hence, $d = 1$ or $d = −1$.



I understand everything stated in the answer except for the part: $(-1)dk = d(-k) = (-1)(-1) = 1$



Perhaps someone could help me understand where the $(-1)dk$ comes from? And how we go from $d(-k)$ to $(-1)(-1)$?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The term $(-1)$ in $(-1)dk$ was just put there to make it $=1$. The intermediate step $(-1)(-1)$ seems unnecessary and confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – herb steinberg
    Nov 25 '18 at 22:38
















1












$begingroup$


I'm working through a discrete math textbook and I've come across this question with answer:



Prove that the only divisors of $−1$ are $−1$ and $1$.



Answer:



We established that $1$ divides any number; hence, it divides $−1$, and any nonzero number divides itself. Thus, $1$ and $−1$ are divisors of $−1$. To show that these are the only ones, we take $d$, a positive divisor of $−1$. Thus, $dk = −1$ for some integer $k$, and $(−1)dk = d(−k) = (−1)(−1) = 1$; hence, $dmid 1$, and the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$. Hence, $d = 1$ or $d = −1$.



I understand everything stated in the answer except for the part: $(-1)dk = d(-k) = (-1)(-1) = 1$



Perhaps someone could help me understand where the $(-1)dk$ comes from? And how we go from $d(-k)$ to $(-1)(-1)$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The term $(-1)$ in $(-1)dk$ was just put there to make it $=1$. The intermediate step $(-1)(-1)$ seems unnecessary and confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – herb steinberg
    Nov 25 '18 at 22:38














1












1








1


0



$begingroup$


I'm working through a discrete math textbook and I've come across this question with answer:



Prove that the only divisors of $−1$ are $−1$ and $1$.



Answer:



We established that $1$ divides any number; hence, it divides $−1$, and any nonzero number divides itself. Thus, $1$ and $−1$ are divisors of $−1$. To show that these are the only ones, we take $d$, a positive divisor of $−1$. Thus, $dk = −1$ for some integer $k$, and $(−1)dk = d(−k) = (−1)(−1) = 1$; hence, $dmid 1$, and the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$. Hence, $d = 1$ or $d = −1$.



I understand everything stated in the answer except for the part: $(-1)dk = d(-k) = (-1)(-1) = 1$



Perhaps someone could help me understand where the $(-1)dk$ comes from? And how we go from $d(-k)$ to $(-1)(-1)$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm working through a discrete math textbook and I've come across this question with answer:



Prove that the only divisors of $−1$ are $−1$ and $1$.



Answer:



We established that $1$ divides any number; hence, it divides $−1$, and any nonzero number divides itself. Thus, $1$ and $−1$ are divisors of $−1$. To show that these are the only ones, we take $d$, a positive divisor of $−1$. Thus, $dk = −1$ for some integer $k$, and $(−1)dk = d(−k) = (−1)(−1) = 1$; hence, $dmid 1$, and the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$. Hence, $d = 1$ or $d = −1$.



I understand everything stated in the answer except for the part: $(-1)dk = d(-k) = (-1)(-1) = 1$



Perhaps someone could help me understand where the $(-1)dk$ comes from? And how we go from $d(-k)$ to $(-1)(-1)$?







discrete-mathematics






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edited Nov 26 '18 at 0:03









amWhy

1




1










asked Nov 25 '18 at 22:32









metisMusingsmetisMusings

191




191












  • $begingroup$
    The term $(-1)$ in $(-1)dk$ was just put there to make it $=1$. The intermediate step $(-1)(-1)$ seems unnecessary and confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – herb steinberg
    Nov 25 '18 at 22:38


















  • $begingroup$
    The term $(-1)$ in $(-1)dk$ was just put there to make it $=1$. The intermediate step $(-1)(-1)$ seems unnecessary and confusing.
    $endgroup$
    – herb steinberg
    Nov 25 '18 at 22:38
















$begingroup$
The term $(-1)$ in $(-1)dk$ was just put there to make it $=1$. The intermediate step $(-1)(-1)$ seems unnecessary and confusing.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Nov 25 '18 at 22:38




$begingroup$
The term $(-1)$ in $(-1)dk$ was just put there to make it $=1$. The intermediate step $(-1)(-1)$ seems unnecessary and confusing.
$endgroup$
– herb steinberg
Nov 25 '18 at 22:38










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

The $(-1)dk$ bit is basically use trying to establish that, whatever $d$ is, it divides $1$ - which, since the only divisor of $1$ is itself, means $d=1$. By establishing $d=1$, then we establish that no other divisors to $-1$ exist, other than $1$ and $-1$ - this is because we assumed that $d$ was some other, arbitrary divisor, but show that such an assumption means $d=1$ (an analogous argument can probably show that $d=-1$ under a slightly different construction).



So... from the fact that $d$ divides $-1$, we know there exists some integer $k$ such that $dk = -1$.



So, we begin with just considering $(-1)dk$, and we want to see where that takes us.



As multiplication is commutative, $(-1)dk = d(-1)k$.



$(-1)k = -k$, obviously, so $(-1)dk = d(-1)k = d(-k)$.



However, recall that, since $d|-1 ;; Rightarrow ;; dk = -1$, we also have $(-1)dk = (-1)(-1)$.



Thus, $d(-k) = (-1)(-1)$.



We know $(-1)(-1) = 1$, obviously, so we thus have $d(-k)=1$.



$d$ and $k$ by assumption are both integers (and thus $-k$ is too). Thus, $d|1$ and $-k|1$.



Since $d$ divides $1$, $d$ is a factor of $1$ by definition. However, the only factors of $1$ are ... just $1$ itself. Thus, $d=1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you!! I'm actually having some of the most trouble in proofs on these manipulations of rather simple algebra, I guess because it's so ingrained to just be true.
    $endgroup$
    – metisMusings
    Nov 26 '18 at 19:22



















1












$begingroup$

We are assuming that $d$ is a divisor of $-1$ that is



$$dk=-1$$



and multiplying each side by $-1$ we obtain



$$-1cdot dk=-1cdot (-1)=1 iff d(-k)=1 iff d=1,-1 $$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Presumably the book has already proved or taken as axioms:





    • $(ab)c=a(bc)$ and you can then write the result as $abc$, called associativity of multiplication


    • $ab=ba$, call commutativity of multiplication

    • $(-1)c=-c$

    • $(-1)(-1)=1$

    • the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$, or at least that the only positive divisor of $1$ is $1$


    Then using the first three points you have $(-1)dk = ((-1)d)k=(d(-1))k = d((-1)k)=d(-k) $



    while, since $dk=-1$, you have $(-1)dk=(-1)(-1)=1$ from the fourth point



    together implying $d(-k)=1$, and since $d$ is assumed to be positive it must be $1$ as the only positive divisor of $1$, leading to the conclusion that $-k=1$ and so $(-1)(-k)=(-1)1$, i.e. $k=-1$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2












      $begingroup$

      The $(-1)dk$ bit is basically use trying to establish that, whatever $d$ is, it divides $1$ - which, since the only divisor of $1$ is itself, means $d=1$. By establishing $d=1$, then we establish that no other divisors to $-1$ exist, other than $1$ and $-1$ - this is because we assumed that $d$ was some other, arbitrary divisor, but show that such an assumption means $d=1$ (an analogous argument can probably show that $d=-1$ under a slightly different construction).



      So... from the fact that $d$ divides $-1$, we know there exists some integer $k$ such that $dk = -1$.



      So, we begin with just considering $(-1)dk$, and we want to see where that takes us.



      As multiplication is commutative, $(-1)dk = d(-1)k$.



      $(-1)k = -k$, obviously, so $(-1)dk = d(-1)k = d(-k)$.



      However, recall that, since $d|-1 ;; Rightarrow ;; dk = -1$, we also have $(-1)dk = (-1)(-1)$.



      Thus, $d(-k) = (-1)(-1)$.



      We know $(-1)(-1) = 1$, obviously, so we thus have $d(-k)=1$.



      $d$ and $k$ by assumption are both integers (and thus $-k$ is too). Thus, $d|1$ and $-k|1$.



      Since $d$ divides $1$, $d$ is a factor of $1$ by definition. However, the only factors of $1$ are ... just $1$ itself. Thus, $d=1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Thank you!! I'm actually having some of the most trouble in proofs on these manipulations of rather simple algebra, I guess because it's so ingrained to just be true.
        $endgroup$
        – metisMusings
        Nov 26 '18 at 19:22
















      2












      $begingroup$

      The $(-1)dk$ bit is basically use trying to establish that, whatever $d$ is, it divides $1$ - which, since the only divisor of $1$ is itself, means $d=1$. By establishing $d=1$, then we establish that no other divisors to $-1$ exist, other than $1$ and $-1$ - this is because we assumed that $d$ was some other, arbitrary divisor, but show that such an assumption means $d=1$ (an analogous argument can probably show that $d=-1$ under a slightly different construction).



      So... from the fact that $d$ divides $-1$, we know there exists some integer $k$ such that $dk = -1$.



      So, we begin with just considering $(-1)dk$, and we want to see where that takes us.



      As multiplication is commutative, $(-1)dk = d(-1)k$.



      $(-1)k = -k$, obviously, so $(-1)dk = d(-1)k = d(-k)$.



      However, recall that, since $d|-1 ;; Rightarrow ;; dk = -1$, we also have $(-1)dk = (-1)(-1)$.



      Thus, $d(-k) = (-1)(-1)$.



      We know $(-1)(-1) = 1$, obviously, so we thus have $d(-k)=1$.



      $d$ and $k$ by assumption are both integers (and thus $-k$ is too). Thus, $d|1$ and $-k|1$.



      Since $d$ divides $1$, $d$ is a factor of $1$ by definition. However, the only factors of $1$ are ... just $1$ itself. Thus, $d=1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Thank you!! I'm actually having some of the most trouble in proofs on these manipulations of rather simple algebra, I guess because it's so ingrained to just be true.
        $endgroup$
        – metisMusings
        Nov 26 '18 at 19:22














      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$

      The $(-1)dk$ bit is basically use trying to establish that, whatever $d$ is, it divides $1$ - which, since the only divisor of $1$ is itself, means $d=1$. By establishing $d=1$, then we establish that no other divisors to $-1$ exist, other than $1$ and $-1$ - this is because we assumed that $d$ was some other, arbitrary divisor, but show that such an assumption means $d=1$ (an analogous argument can probably show that $d=-1$ under a slightly different construction).



      So... from the fact that $d$ divides $-1$, we know there exists some integer $k$ such that $dk = -1$.



      So, we begin with just considering $(-1)dk$, and we want to see where that takes us.



      As multiplication is commutative, $(-1)dk = d(-1)k$.



      $(-1)k = -k$, obviously, so $(-1)dk = d(-1)k = d(-k)$.



      However, recall that, since $d|-1 ;; Rightarrow ;; dk = -1$, we also have $(-1)dk = (-1)(-1)$.



      Thus, $d(-k) = (-1)(-1)$.



      We know $(-1)(-1) = 1$, obviously, so we thus have $d(-k)=1$.



      $d$ and $k$ by assumption are both integers (and thus $-k$ is too). Thus, $d|1$ and $-k|1$.



      Since $d$ divides $1$, $d$ is a factor of $1$ by definition. However, the only factors of $1$ are ... just $1$ itself. Thus, $d=1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      The $(-1)dk$ bit is basically use trying to establish that, whatever $d$ is, it divides $1$ - which, since the only divisor of $1$ is itself, means $d=1$. By establishing $d=1$, then we establish that no other divisors to $-1$ exist, other than $1$ and $-1$ - this is because we assumed that $d$ was some other, arbitrary divisor, but show that such an assumption means $d=1$ (an analogous argument can probably show that $d=-1$ under a slightly different construction).



      So... from the fact that $d$ divides $-1$, we know there exists some integer $k$ such that $dk = -1$.



      So, we begin with just considering $(-1)dk$, and we want to see where that takes us.



      As multiplication is commutative, $(-1)dk = d(-1)k$.



      $(-1)k = -k$, obviously, so $(-1)dk = d(-1)k = d(-k)$.



      However, recall that, since $d|-1 ;; Rightarrow ;; dk = -1$, we also have $(-1)dk = (-1)(-1)$.



      Thus, $d(-k) = (-1)(-1)$.



      We know $(-1)(-1) = 1$, obviously, so we thus have $d(-k)=1$.



      $d$ and $k$ by assumption are both integers (and thus $-k$ is too). Thus, $d|1$ and $-k|1$.



      Since $d$ divides $1$, $d$ is a factor of $1$ by definition. However, the only factors of $1$ are ... just $1$ itself. Thus, $d=1$.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 25 '18 at 22:41









      Eevee TrainerEevee Trainer

      5,4691936




      5,4691936












      • $begingroup$
        Thank you!! I'm actually having some of the most trouble in proofs on these manipulations of rather simple algebra, I guess because it's so ingrained to just be true.
        $endgroup$
        – metisMusings
        Nov 26 '18 at 19:22


















      • $begingroup$
        Thank you!! I'm actually having some of the most trouble in proofs on these manipulations of rather simple algebra, I guess because it's so ingrained to just be true.
        $endgroup$
        – metisMusings
        Nov 26 '18 at 19:22
















      $begingroup$
      Thank you!! I'm actually having some of the most trouble in proofs on these manipulations of rather simple algebra, I guess because it's so ingrained to just be true.
      $endgroup$
      – metisMusings
      Nov 26 '18 at 19:22




      $begingroup$
      Thank you!! I'm actually having some of the most trouble in proofs on these manipulations of rather simple algebra, I guess because it's so ingrained to just be true.
      $endgroup$
      – metisMusings
      Nov 26 '18 at 19:22











      1












      $begingroup$

      We are assuming that $d$ is a divisor of $-1$ that is



      $$dk=-1$$



      and multiplying each side by $-1$ we obtain



      $$-1cdot dk=-1cdot (-1)=1 iff d(-k)=1 iff d=1,-1 $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        We are assuming that $d$ is a divisor of $-1$ that is



        $$dk=-1$$



        and multiplying each side by $-1$ we obtain



        $$-1cdot dk=-1cdot (-1)=1 iff d(-k)=1 iff d=1,-1 $$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          We are assuming that $d$ is a divisor of $-1$ that is



          $$dk=-1$$



          and multiplying each side by $-1$ we obtain



          $$-1cdot dk=-1cdot (-1)=1 iff d(-k)=1 iff d=1,-1 $$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          We are assuming that $d$ is a divisor of $-1$ that is



          $$dk=-1$$



          and multiplying each side by $-1$ we obtain



          $$-1cdot dk=-1cdot (-1)=1 iff d(-k)=1 iff d=1,-1 $$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 25 '18 at 22:37









          gimusigimusi

          92.9k94494




          92.9k94494























              0












              $begingroup$

              Presumably the book has already proved or taken as axioms:





              • $(ab)c=a(bc)$ and you can then write the result as $abc$, called associativity of multiplication


              • $ab=ba$, call commutativity of multiplication

              • $(-1)c=-c$

              • $(-1)(-1)=1$

              • the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$, or at least that the only positive divisor of $1$ is $1$


              Then using the first three points you have $(-1)dk = ((-1)d)k=(d(-1))k = d((-1)k)=d(-k) $



              while, since $dk=-1$, you have $(-1)dk=(-1)(-1)=1$ from the fourth point



              together implying $d(-k)=1$, and since $d$ is assumed to be positive it must be $1$ as the only positive divisor of $1$, leading to the conclusion that $-k=1$ and so $(-1)(-k)=(-1)1$, i.e. $k=-1$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Presumably the book has already proved or taken as axioms:





                • $(ab)c=a(bc)$ and you can then write the result as $abc$, called associativity of multiplication


                • $ab=ba$, call commutativity of multiplication

                • $(-1)c=-c$

                • $(-1)(-1)=1$

                • the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$, or at least that the only positive divisor of $1$ is $1$


                Then using the first three points you have $(-1)dk = ((-1)d)k=(d(-1))k = d((-1)k)=d(-k) $



                while, since $dk=-1$, you have $(-1)dk=(-1)(-1)=1$ from the fourth point



                together implying $d(-k)=1$, and since $d$ is assumed to be positive it must be $1$ as the only positive divisor of $1$, leading to the conclusion that $-k=1$ and so $(-1)(-k)=(-1)1$, i.e. $k=-1$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Presumably the book has already proved or taken as axioms:





                  • $(ab)c=a(bc)$ and you can then write the result as $abc$, called associativity of multiplication


                  • $ab=ba$, call commutativity of multiplication

                  • $(-1)c=-c$

                  • $(-1)(-1)=1$

                  • the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$, or at least that the only positive divisor of $1$ is $1$


                  Then using the first three points you have $(-1)dk = ((-1)d)k=(d(-1))k = d((-1)k)=d(-k) $



                  while, since $dk=-1$, you have $(-1)dk=(-1)(-1)=1$ from the fourth point



                  together implying $d(-k)=1$, and since $d$ is assumed to be positive it must be $1$ as the only positive divisor of $1$, leading to the conclusion that $-k=1$ and so $(-1)(-k)=(-1)1$, i.e. $k=-1$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Presumably the book has already proved or taken as axioms:





                  • $(ab)c=a(bc)$ and you can then write the result as $abc$, called associativity of multiplication


                  • $ab=ba$, call commutativity of multiplication

                  • $(-1)c=-c$

                  • $(-1)(-1)=1$

                  • the only divisors of $1$ are $1$ and $−1$, or at least that the only positive divisor of $1$ is $1$


                  Then using the first three points you have $(-1)dk = ((-1)d)k=(d(-1))k = d((-1)k)=d(-k) $



                  while, since $dk=-1$, you have $(-1)dk=(-1)(-1)=1$ from the fourth point



                  together implying $d(-k)=1$, and since $d$ is assumed to be positive it must be $1$ as the only positive divisor of $1$, leading to the conclusion that $-k=1$ and so $(-1)(-k)=(-1)1$, i.e. $k=-1$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 25 '18 at 22:51









                  HenryHenry

                  99.3k479165




                  99.3k479165






























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