A faithful completely reducible Lie algebra representation implies reductivity












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Suppose $mathfrak g$ is a finite-dimensional Lie algebra over a field $k$, which we can assume of characteristic zero. In Milne's LAG, Proposition 6.4 claims that $mathfrak g$ is a reductive Lie algebra if and only if there exists a faithful and completely reducible finite-dimensional representation of $mathfrak g$.



I understood the proof in the book saying that if $mathfrak g$ is reductive, we can take the direct sum of the adjoint representation for $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g = mathfrak g$ given by the adjoint representation for $mathcal Dmathfrak g$ and a direct sum of $1$-dimensional faithful representations for $Z(mathfrak g)$ given by adding morphisms of the form $k simeq mathfrak{gl}(k)$. What I don't understand is the converse, for which nothing is mentioned.



The existence of this faithful completely reducible representation of $mathfrak g$ implies that we have an inclusion $mathfrak g subseteq mathfrak{gl}(V)$ for some finite-dimensional $k$-vector space $V$. Since $mathcal D(mathfrak{gl}(V)) = mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is semisimple, $mathrm{rad}(mathfrak{sl}(V)) = 0$, thus $mathcal D(mathfrak g) subseteq mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is also semisimple. If $x in Z(mathfrak g) cap mathcal D mathfrak g$, this also means $x in Z(mathcal D mathfrak g) = 0$, so we know that $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g$ is an ideal of $mathfrak g$. That's what I managed to do so far.



Two questions (which are kind of linked) :




  • Why doesn't Milne mention anything about this direction? Did he forget or am I missing something obvious?

  • Does anyone have a proof?










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$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Suppose $mathfrak g$ is a finite-dimensional Lie algebra over a field $k$, which we can assume of characteristic zero. In Milne's LAG, Proposition 6.4 claims that $mathfrak g$ is a reductive Lie algebra if and only if there exists a faithful and completely reducible finite-dimensional representation of $mathfrak g$.



    I understood the proof in the book saying that if $mathfrak g$ is reductive, we can take the direct sum of the adjoint representation for $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g = mathfrak g$ given by the adjoint representation for $mathcal Dmathfrak g$ and a direct sum of $1$-dimensional faithful representations for $Z(mathfrak g)$ given by adding morphisms of the form $k simeq mathfrak{gl}(k)$. What I don't understand is the converse, for which nothing is mentioned.



    The existence of this faithful completely reducible representation of $mathfrak g$ implies that we have an inclusion $mathfrak g subseteq mathfrak{gl}(V)$ for some finite-dimensional $k$-vector space $V$. Since $mathcal D(mathfrak{gl}(V)) = mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is semisimple, $mathrm{rad}(mathfrak{sl}(V)) = 0$, thus $mathcal D(mathfrak g) subseteq mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is also semisimple. If $x in Z(mathfrak g) cap mathcal D mathfrak g$, this also means $x in Z(mathcal D mathfrak g) = 0$, so we know that $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g$ is an ideal of $mathfrak g$. That's what I managed to do so far.



    Two questions (which are kind of linked) :




    • Why doesn't Milne mention anything about this direction? Did he forget or am I missing something obvious?

    • Does anyone have a proof?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3


      1



      $begingroup$


      Suppose $mathfrak g$ is a finite-dimensional Lie algebra over a field $k$, which we can assume of characteristic zero. In Milne's LAG, Proposition 6.4 claims that $mathfrak g$ is a reductive Lie algebra if and only if there exists a faithful and completely reducible finite-dimensional representation of $mathfrak g$.



      I understood the proof in the book saying that if $mathfrak g$ is reductive, we can take the direct sum of the adjoint representation for $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g = mathfrak g$ given by the adjoint representation for $mathcal Dmathfrak g$ and a direct sum of $1$-dimensional faithful representations for $Z(mathfrak g)$ given by adding morphisms of the form $k simeq mathfrak{gl}(k)$. What I don't understand is the converse, for which nothing is mentioned.



      The existence of this faithful completely reducible representation of $mathfrak g$ implies that we have an inclusion $mathfrak g subseteq mathfrak{gl}(V)$ for some finite-dimensional $k$-vector space $V$. Since $mathcal D(mathfrak{gl}(V)) = mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is semisimple, $mathrm{rad}(mathfrak{sl}(V)) = 0$, thus $mathcal D(mathfrak g) subseteq mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is also semisimple. If $x in Z(mathfrak g) cap mathcal D mathfrak g$, this also means $x in Z(mathcal D mathfrak g) = 0$, so we know that $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g$ is an ideal of $mathfrak g$. That's what I managed to do so far.



      Two questions (which are kind of linked) :




      • Why doesn't Milne mention anything about this direction? Did he forget or am I missing something obvious?

      • Does anyone have a proof?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Suppose $mathfrak g$ is a finite-dimensional Lie algebra over a field $k$, which we can assume of characteristic zero. In Milne's LAG, Proposition 6.4 claims that $mathfrak g$ is a reductive Lie algebra if and only if there exists a faithful and completely reducible finite-dimensional representation of $mathfrak g$.



      I understood the proof in the book saying that if $mathfrak g$ is reductive, we can take the direct sum of the adjoint representation for $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g = mathfrak g$ given by the adjoint representation for $mathcal Dmathfrak g$ and a direct sum of $1$-dimensional faithful representations for $Z(mathfrak g)$ given by adding morphisms of the form $k simeq mathfrak{gl}(k)$. What I don't understand is the converse, for which nothing is mentioned.



      The existence of this faithful completely reducible representation of $mathfrak g$ implies that we have an inclusion $mathfrak g subseteq mathfrak{gl}(V)$ for some finite-dimensional $k$-vector space $V$. Since $mathcal D(mathfrak{gl}(V)) = mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is semisimple, $mathrm{rad}(mathfrak{sl}(V)) = 0$, thus $mathcal D(mathfrak g) subseteq mathfrak{sl}(V)$ is also semisimple. If $x in Z(mathfrak g) cap mathcal D mathfrak g$, this also means $x in Z(mathcal D mathfrak g) = 0$, so we know that $Z(mathfrak g) oplus mathcal D mathfrak g$ is an ideal of $mathfrak g$. That's what I managed to do so far.



      Two questions (which are kind of linked) :




      • Why doesn't Milne mention anything about this direction? Did he forget or am I missing something obvious?

      • Does anyone have a proof?







      lie-algebras






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      asked Aug 14 '16 at 16:07









      Patrick Da SilvaPatrick Da Silva

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          3 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Let ${cal G}$ be a Lie algebra defined over a field of characteristic $0$. Suppose that $D{cal G}$ is semi-simple, write the Levi Decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, where $S$ is semi-simple and $rad({cal G})$ solvable. We have $[S,S]=S$, this implies that $Ssubset [{cal G},{cal G}]$ and $[{cal G},{cal G}]=Soplus U$ where $Usubset rad({cal G})$ thus $U$ is solvable. We deduce that $[{cal G},{cal G}]$ is semi-simple, if and only if $[{cal G},{cal G}]=S$. This implies that $[rad({cal G},rad({cal G})]=0$ and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative.



          But I don't understand your incomplete argument, you seem to assume that a subalgebra of a semi-simple Lie algebra is also semi-simple and this is not true.



          Let $phi:{cal G}rightarrow sl(V)$ be a complete reducible representation of ${cal G}$, you can write $V=oplus_iV_i$ as a sum of irreducible module.



          Suppose that $dim V_i>1$, let $phi_i:{cal G}rightarrow gl(V_i)$ be the representation induced by $phi$ on $V_i$. Remark that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is a nilpotent ideal. There exists $xin V_i$ such that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0$, since $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is an ideal, you deduce that $V={ xin V_i, [rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0}$ is a submodule thus it is $V_i$. This implies that $phi_i(rad({cal G})$ is commutative for $dim(V_i)>1$. Since $gl(k)$ is commutative, you deduce that $phi(rad({cal G})$ is commutative and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative since $phi$ is faithful.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I like the answer, but I am trying to follow Milne and the Levi decomposition comes later. At least you're telling me that the statement is true, which is still comforting. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Patrick Da Silva
            Aug 14 '16 at 18:16










          • $begingroup$
            @TsemoAristide The last conclusion should be that $rad(mathfrak{g})$ is commutative. How does this imply that $mathfrak{g}$ is reductive? (I know it suffices to prove that $rad(mathfrak{g}) subset Z(mathfrak{g})$.)
            $endgroup$
            – Dominique R.F.
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:25










          • $begingroup$
            This is a definition of a reductive Lie algebra: A Lie algebra is reductive if its radical is commutative.
            $endgroup$
            – Tsemo Aristide
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:27










          • $begingroup$
            @TsemoAristide I know the three following equivalent definitions of an algebra being reductive : 1) $Z(mathfrak{g}) = rad( mathfrak{g})$, 2) $mathfrak{g} = Z(mathfrak{g}) oplus [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g} ]$ with $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g}]$ semisimple and 3) The adjoint representation is completely reducible. Could you please indicate how your definition relates to any of those? A reference would suffice. (All the books that I know use one of the three definitions I have mentioned)
            $endgroup$
            – Dominique R.F.
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:32












          • $begingroup$
            In characteristic zero, take the Levi decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, if $rad({cal G})$ is commutative, then you have 3) since $[S,S]=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Tsemo Aristide
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:34



















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          You can actually find a proof of this claim in Milne, though you have to read it carefully. Right after proposition 6.4, he defines the nilpotent radical $mathfrak{s}$ of $mathfrak{g}$, which is the intersection of the kernels of all simple representations of $mathfrak{g}$. Since $mathfrak{s}$ is contained in the kernel of any semisimple representation of $mathfrak{g}$, the hypothesis that $mathfrak{g}$ has a faithful semisimple representation implies that $mathfrak{s}=0$.



          Milne then proves the following theorem (theorem 6.9):




          Let $mathfrak{g}$ be a Lie algebra, $mathfrak{r}$ its radical and $mathfrak{s}$ its nilpotent radical. Then $mathfrak{s} = [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]$.




          Looking at the proof, we see that the full theorem depends on proposition 6.4. However, the inclusion $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ does not. It only depends on lemmas 6.11 and 6.12, which are elementary.



          Since $mathfrak{s}=0$, we conclude that $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]=0$, so the radical $mathfrak{r}$ is contained in the center $Z(mathfrak{g})$. Note that the inclusion $Z(mathfrak{g}) subset mathfrak{r}$ always holds, so we conclude $Z(mathfrak{g})= mathfrak{r}$. This is Milne's definition of an algebra being reductive.



          In a sense, the $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ part of the theorem should have been stated and proved before proposition 6.4. Proposition 6.4 then follows quite easily.






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          • 1




            $begingroup$
            I managed to do it your way (I'm not into Levi decompositions yet, so I can't do it Tsemo's way). So thanks for that. Do you know anything about Corollary 6.10? He seems to use that if $pi : mathfrak g to mathfrak g/mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)$ is the projection then $pi(mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)) = mathrm{rad}(pi(mathfrak g))$, which is very wrong (just consider the two-dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra $mathfrak g$ with basis ${x,y}$ with $[x,y] = x$ and send $y$ to zero). I'm disturbed by this book... this might be a different question, but then again maybe not.
            $endgroup$
            – Patrick Da Silva
            Aug 22 '16 at 1:46





















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          $begingroup$

          Here is a possibly different way of doing it:



          Claim: Let $mathfrak g$ be Lie algebra over $mathbb{R}$, and $I,J$ be two ideals of it such that $I cap J=0$ and such that $mathfrak g/I$,$mathfrak g/J$ are reductive then $mathfrak g$ is reductive as well. Proof: Let $p:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g /I,q:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g/J$ be the natural quotient maps. Let $A$ be an abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$, then $p[A]$ is abelian ideal $mathfrak g/I$ and by reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$ we get that $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I)$. Hence:
          $$p([A,mathfrak g])=[p(A),p(mathfrak g)]=[p(A),mathfrak g/I]=0 text{ (As $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g$/I) ) }$$
          So $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq I$, similarly we get $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq J $. Hence, $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq Icap J=0$, so $Asubseteq Z(mathfrak g)$. So every abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$ lives in its center. We also have
          $$p(Z(mathfrak g) cap {mathfrak g}^2)subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I) cap (mathfrak g/I)^2=0 text{ , (By reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$) } $$
          Thus, $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I$, a similar argument gives $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq J$, so $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I cap J=0$, and this completes the proof of reductivity of $mathfrak g$ $square$



          Now, we prove the statement: "Let $mathfrak g$ be a finite dimensional $mathbb{R}$- Lie algebra that admits a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module, then $mathfrak g$ is reductive" by induction on $dim(mathfrak g)$.



          Proof: Let $V$ be the faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module. If this representation is irreducible, then we are done because irreducible linear lie algebras are reductive. So assume that the representation is not irreducible. Let $S$ be a proper nontrivial $mathfrak g$-submodule of $V$. By complete reducibility, we have a $mathfrak g$-submodule $T$ of $V$ such that $V=Soplus T$. $V$ is completely reducible , thus so are the $mathfrak g$-submodules $S,T$. It follows that $S$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$-module and $T$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$-module. Hence, by induction we have that $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$, $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$ are reductive. By faithfulness, we have $Ann(S)cap Ann(T)=Ann(V)=0$ . So by previous claim, we are done. $square$






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            3 Answers
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            3 Answers
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            1












            $begingroup$

            Let ${cal G}$ be a Lie algebra defined over a field of characteristic $0$. Suppose that $D{cal G}$ is semi-simple, write the Levi Decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, where $S$ is semi-simple and $rad({cal G})$ solvable. We have $[S,S]=S$, this implies that $Ssubset [{cal G},{cal G}]$ and $[{cal G},{cal G}]=Soplus U$ where $Usubset rad({cal G})$ thus $U$ is solvable. We deduce that $[{cal G},{cal G}]$ is semi-simple, if and only if $[{cal G},{cal G}]=S$. This implies that $[rad({cal G},rad({cal G})]=0$ and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative.



            But I don't understand your incomplete argument, you seem to assume that a subalgebra of a semi-simple Lie algebra is also semi-simple and this is not true.



            Let $phi:{cal G}rightarrow sl(V)$ be a complete reducible representation of ${cal G}$, you can write $V=oplus_iV_i$ as a sum of irreducible module.



            Suppose that $dim V_i>1$, let $phi_i:{cal G}rightarrow gl(V_i)$ be the representation induced by $phi$ on $V_i$. Remark that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is a nilpotent ideal. There exists $xin V_i$ such that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0$, since $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is an ideal, you deduce that $V={ xin V_i, [rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0}$ is a submodule thus it is $V_i$. This implies that $phi_i(rad({cal G})$ is commutative for $dim(V_i)>1$. Since $gl(k)$ is commutative, you deduce that $phi(rad({cal G})$ is commutative and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative since $phi$ is faithful.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I like the answer, but I am trying to follow Milne and the Levi decomposition comes later. At least you're telling me that the statement is true, which is still comforting. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 14 '16 at 18:16










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide The last conclusion should be that $rad(mathfrak{g})$ is commutative. How does this imply that $mathfrak{g}$ is reductive? (I know it suffices to prove that $rad(mathfrak{g}) subset Z(mathfrak{g})$.)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:25










            • $begingroup$
              This is a definition of a reductive Lie algebra: A Lie algebra is reductive if its radical is commutative.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:27










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide I know the three following equivalent definitions of an algebra being reductive : 1) $Z(mathfrak{g}) = rad( mathfrak{g})$, 2) $mathfrak{g} = Z(mathfrak{g}) oplus [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g} ]$ with $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g}]$ semisimple and 3) The adjoint representation is completely reducible. Could you please indicate how your definition relates to any of those? A reference would suffice. (All the books that I know use one of the three definitions I have mentioned)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:32












            • $begingroup$
              In characteristic zero, take the Levi decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, if $rad({cal G})$ is commutative, then you have 3) since $[S,S]=S$.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:34
















            1












            $begingroup$

            Let ${cal G}$ be a Lie algebra defined over a field of characteristic $0$. Suppose that $D{cal G}$ is semi-simple, write the Levi Decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, where $S$ is semi-simple and $rad({cal G})$ solvable. We have $[S,S]=S$, this implies that $Ssubset [{cal G},{cal G}]$ and $[{cal G},{cal G}]=Soplus U$ where $Usubset rad({cal G})$ thus $U$ is solvable. We deduce that $[{cal G},{cal G}]$ is semi-simple, if and only if $[{cal G},{cal G}]=S$. This implies that $[rad({cal G},rad({cal G})]=0$ and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative.



            But I don't understand your incomplete argument, you seem to assume that a subalgebra of a semi-simple Lie algebra is also semi-simple and this is not true.



            Let $phi:{cal G}rightarrow sl(V)$ be a complete reducible representation of ${cal G}$, you can write $V=oplus_iV_i$ as a sum of irreducible module.



            Suppose that $dim V_i>1$, let $phi_i:{cal G}rightarrow gl(V_i)$ be the representation induced by $phi$ on $V_i$. Remark that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is a nilpotent ideal. There exists $xin V_i$ such that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0$, since $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is an ideal, you deduce that $V={ xin V_i, [rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0}$ is a submodule thus it is $V_i$. This implies that $phi_i(rad({cal G})$ is commutative for $dim(V_i)>1$. Since $gl(k)$ is commutative, you deduce that $phi(rad({cal G})$ is commutative and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative since $phi$ is faithful.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I like the answer, but I am trying to follow Milne and the Levi decomposition comes later. At least you're telling me that the statement is true, which is still comforting. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 14 '16 at 18:16










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide The last conclusion should be that $rad(mathfrak{g})$ is commutative. How does this imply that $mathfrak{g}$ is reductive? (I know it suffices to prove that $rad(mathfrak{g}) subset Z(mathfrak{g})$.)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:25










            • $begingroup$
              This is a definition of a reductive Lie algebra: A Lie algebra is reductive if its radical is commutative.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:27










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide I know the three following equivalent definitions of an algebra being reductive : 1) $Z(mathfrak{g}) = rad( mathfrak{g})$, 2) $mathfrak{g} = Z(mathfrak{g}) oplus [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g} ]$ with $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g}]$ semisimple and 3) The adjoint representation is completely reducible. Could you please indicate how your definition relates to any of those? A reference would suffice. (All the books that I know use one of the three definitions I have mentioned)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:32












            • $begingroup$
              In characteristic zero, take the Levi decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, if $rad({cal G})$ is commutative, then you have 3) since $[S,S]=S$.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:34














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            Let ${cal G}$ be a Lie algebra defined over a field of characteristic $0$. Suppose that $D{cal G}$ is semi-simple, write the Levi Decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, where $S$ is semi-simple and $rad({cal G})$ solvable. We have $[S,S]=S$, this implies that $Ssubset [{cal G},{cal G}]$ and $[{cal G},{cal G}]=Soplus U$ where $Usubset rad({cal G})$ thus $U$ is solvable. We deduce that $[{cal G},{cal G}]$ is semi-simple, if and only if $[{cal G},{cal G}]=S$. This implies that $[rad({cal G},rad({cal G})]=0$ and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative.



            But I don't understand your incomplete argument, you seem to assume that a subalgebra of a semi-simple Lie algebra is also semi-simple and this is not true.



            Let $phi:{cal G}rightarrow sl(V)$ be a complete reducible representation of ${cal G}$, you can write $V=oplus_iV_i$ as a sum of irreducible module.



            Suppose that $dim V_i>1$, let $phi_i:{cal G}rightarrow gl(V_i)$ be the representation induced by $phi$ on $V_i$. Remark that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is a nilpotent ideal. There exists $xin V_i$ such that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0$, since $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is an ideal, you deduce that $V={ xin V_i, [rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0}$ is a submodule thus it is $V_i$. This implies that $phi_i(rad({cal G})$ is commutative for $dim(V_i)>1$. Since $gl(k)$ is commutative, you deduce that $phi(rad({cal G})$ is commutative and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative since $phi$ is faithful.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Let ${cal G}$ be a Lie algebra defined over a field of characteristic $0$. Suppose that $D{cal G}$ is semi-simple, write the Levi Decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, where $S$ is semi-simple and $rad({cal G})$ solvable. We have $[S,S]=S$, this implies that $Ssubset [{cal G},{cal G}]$ and $[{cal G},{cal G}]=Soplus U$ where $Usubset rad({cal G})$ thus $U$ is solvable. We deduce that $[{cal G},{cal G}]$ is semi-simple, if and only if $[{cal G},{cal G}]=S$. This implies that $[rad({cal G},rad({cal G})]=0$ and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative.



            But I don't understand your incomplete argument, you seem to assume that a subalgebra of a semi-simple Lie algebra is also semi-simple and this is not true.



            Let $phi:{cal G}rightarrow sl(V)$ be a complete reducible representation of ${cal G}$, you can write $V=oplus_iV_i$ as a sum of irreducible module.



            Suppose that $dim V_i>1$, let $phi_i:{cal G}rightarrow gl(V_i)$ be the representation induced by $phi$ on $V_i$. Remark that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is a nilpotent ideal. There exists $xin V_i$ such that $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0$, since $[rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]$ is an ideal, you deduce that $V={ xin V_i, [rad({cal G}),rad({cal G})]x=0}$ is a submodule thus it is $V_i$. This implies that $phi_i(rad({cal G})$ is commutative for $dim(V_i)>1$. Since $gl(k)$ is commutative, you deduce that $phi(rad({cal G})$ is commutative and $rad({cal G})$ is commutative since $phi$ is faithful.







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            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 14 '16 at 19:31

























            answered Aug 14 '16 at 17:19









            Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

            60.9k11446




            60.9k11446












            • $begingroup$
              I like the answer, but I am trying to follow Milne and the Levi decomposition comes later. At least you're telling me that the statement is true, which is still comforting. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 14 '16 at 18:16










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide The last conclusion should be that $rad(mathfrak{g})$ is commutative. How does this imply that $mathfrak{g}$ is reductive? (I know it suffices to prove that $rad(mathfrak{g}) subset Z(mathfrak{g})$.)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:25










            • $begingroup$
              This is a definition of a reductive Lie algebra: A Lie algebra is reductive if its radical is commutative.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:27










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide I know the three following equivalent definitions of an algebra being reductive : 1) $Z(mathfrak{g}) = rad( mathfrak{g})$, 2) $mathfrak{g} = Z(mathfrak{g}) oplus [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g} ]$ with $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g}]$ semisimple and 3) The adjoint representation is completely reducible. Could you please indicate how your definition relates to any of those? A reference would suffice. (All the books that I know use one of the three definitions I have mentioned)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:32












            • $begingroup$
              In characteristic zero, take the Levi decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, if $rad({cal G})$ is commutative, then you have 3) since $[S,S]=S$.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:34


















            • $begingroup$
              I like the answer, but I am trying to follow Milne and the Levi decomposition comes later. At least you're telling me that the statement is true, which is still comforting. Thanks
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 14 '16 at 18:16










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide The last conclusion should be that $rad(mathfrak{g})$ is commutative. How does this imply that $mathfrak{g}$ is reductive? (I know it suffices to prove that $rad(mathfrak{g}) subset Z(mathfrak{g})$.)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:25










            • $begingroup$
              This is a definition of a reductive Lie algebra: A Lie algebra is reductive if its radical is commutative.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:27










            • $begingroup$
              @TsemoAristide I know the three following equivalent definitions of an algebra being reductive : 1) $Z(mathfrak{g}) = rad( mathfrak{g})$, 2) $mathfrak{g} = Z(mathfrak{g}) oplus [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g} ]$ with $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g}]$ semisimple and 3) The adjoint representation is completely reducible. Could you please indicate how your definition relates to any of those? A reference would suffice. (All the books that I know use one of the three definitions I have mentioned)
              $endgroup$
              – Dominique R.F.
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:32












            • $begingroup$
              In characteristic zero, take the Levi decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, if $rad({cal G})$ is commutative, then you have 3) since $[S,S]=S$.
              $endgroup$
              – Tsemo Aristide
              Aug 14 '16 at 19:34
















            $begingroup$
            I like the answer, but I am trying to follow Milne and the Levi decomposition comes later. At least you're telling me that the statement is true, which is still comforting. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Patrick Da Silva
            Aug 14 '16 at 18:16




            $begingroup$
            I like the answer, but I am trying to follow Milne and the Levi decomposition comes later. At least you're telling me that the statement is true, which is still comforting. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Patrick Da Silva
            Aug 14 '16 at 18:16












            $begingroup$
            @TsemoAristide The last conclusion should be that $rad(mathfrak{g})$ is commutative. How does this imply that $mathfrak{g}$ is reductive? (I know it suffices to prove that $rad(mathfrak{g}) subset Z(mathfrak{g})$.)
            $endgroup$
            – Dominique R.F.
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:25




            $begingroup$
            @TsemoAristide The last conclusion should be that $rad(mathfrak{g})$ is commutative. How does this imply that $mathfrak{g}$ is reductive? (I know it suffices to prove that $rad(mathfrak{g}) subset Z(mathfrak{g})$.)
            $endgroup$
            – Dominique R.F.
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:25












            $begingroup$
            This is a definition of a reductive Lie algebra: A Lie algebra is reductive if its radical is commutative.
            $endgroup$
            – Tsemo Aristide
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:27




            $begingroup$
            This is a definition of a reductive Lie algebra: A Lie algebra is reductive if its radical is commutative.
            $endgroup$
            – Tsemo Aristide
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:27












            $begingroup$
            @TsemoAristide I know the three following equivalent definitions of an algebra being reductive : 1) $Z(mathfrak{g}) = rad( mathfrak{g})$, 2) $mathfrak{g} = Z(mathfrak{g}) oplus [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g} ]$ with $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g}]$ semisimple and 3) The adjoint representation is completely reducible. Could you please indicate how your definition relates to any of those? A reference would suffice. (All the books that I know use one of the three definitions I have mentioned)
            $endgroup$
            – Dominique R.F.
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:32






            $begingroup$
            @TsemoAristide I know the three following equivalent definitions of an algebra being reductive : 1) $Z(mathfrak{g}) = rad( mathfrak{g})$, 2) $mathfrak{g} = Z(mathfrak{g}) oplus [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g} ]$ with $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{g}]$ semisimple and 3) The adjoint representation is completely reducible. Could you please indicate how your definition relates to any of those? A reference would suffice. (All the books that I know use one of the three definitions I have mentioned)
            $endgroup$
            – Dominique R.F.
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:32














            $begingroup$
            In characteristic zero, take the Levi decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, if $rad({cal G})$ is commutative, then you have 3) since $[S,S]=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Tsemo Aristide
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:34




            $begingroup$
            In characteristic zero, take the Levi decomposition ${cal G}=Soplus rad({cal G})$, if $rad({cal G})$ is commutative, then you have 3) since $[S,S]=S$.
            $endgroup$
            – Tsemo Aristide
            Aug 14 '16 at 19:34











            1












            $begingroup$

            You can actually find a proof of this claim in Milne, though you have to read it carefully. Right after proposition 6.4, he defines the nilpotent radical $mathfrak{s}$ of $mathfrak{g}$, which is the intersection of the kernels of all simple representations of $mathfrak{g}$. Since $mathfrak{s}$ is contained in the kernel of any semisimple representation of $mathfrak{g}$, the hypothesis that $mathfrak{g}$ has a faithful semisimple representation implies that $mathfrak{s}=0$.



            Milne then proves the following theorem (theorem 6.9):




            Let $mathfrak{g}$ be a Lie algebra, $mathfrak{r}$ its radical and $mathfrak{s}$ its nilpotent radical. Then $mathfrak{s} = [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]$.




            Looking at the proof, we see that the full theorem depends on proposition 6.4. However, the inclusion $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ does not. It only depends on lemmas 6.11 and 6.12, which are elementary.



            Since $mathfrak{s}=0$, we conclude that $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]=0$, so the radical $mathfrak{r}$ is contained in the center $Z(mathfrak{g})$. Note that the inclusion $Z(mathfrak{g}) subset mathfrak{r}$ always holds, so we conclude $Z(mathfrak{g})= mathfrak{r}$. This is Milne's definition of an algebra being reductive.



            In a sense, the $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ part of the theorem should have been stated and proved before proposition 6.4. Proposition 6.4 then follows quite easily.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I managed to do it your way (I'm not into Levi decompositions yet, so I can't do it Tsemo's way). So thanks for that. Do you know anything about Corollary 6.10? He seems to use that if $pi : mathfrak g to mathfrak g/mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)$ is the projection then $pi(mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)) = mathrm{rad}(pi(mathfrak g))$, which is very wrong (just consider the two-dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra $mathfrak g$ with basis ${x,y}$ with $[x,y] = x$ and send $y$ to zero). I'm disturbed by this book... this might be a different question, but then again maybe not.
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 22 '16 at 1:46


















            1












            $begingroup$

            You can actually find a proof of this claim in Milne, though you have to read it carefully. Right after proposition 6.4, he defines the nilpotent radical $mathfrak{s}$ of $mathfrak{g}$, which is the intersection of the kernels of all simple representations of $mathfrak{g}$. Since $mathfrak{s}$ is contained in the kernel of any semisimple representation of $mathfrak{g}$, the hypothesis that $mathfrak{g}$ has a faithful semisimple representation implies that $mathfrak{s}=0$.



            Milne then proves the following theorem (theorem 6.9):




            Let $mathfrak{g}$ be a Lie algebra, $mathfrak{r}$ its radical and $mathfrak{s}$ its nilpotent radical. Then $mathfrak{s} = [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]$.




            Looking at the proof, we see that the full theorem depends on proposition 6.4. However, the inclusion $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ does not. It only depends on lemmas 6.11 and 6.12, which are elementary.



            Since $mathfrak{s}=0$, we conclude that $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]=0$, so the radical $mathfrak{r}$ is contained in the center $Z(mathfrak{g})$. Note that the inclusion $Z(mathfrak{g}) subset mathfrak{r}$ always holds, so we conclude $Z(mathfrak{g})= mathfrak{r}$. This is Milne's definition of an algebra being reductive.



            In a sense, the $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ part of the theorem should have been stated and proved before proposition 6.4. Proposition 6.4 then follows quite easily.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$









            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I managed to do it your way (I'm not into Levi decompositions yet, so I can't do it Tsemo's way). So thanks for that. Do you know anything about Corollary 6.10? He seems to use that if $pi : mathfrak g to mathfrak g/mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)$ is the projection then $pi(mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)) = mathrm{rad}(pi(mathfrak g))$, which is very wrong (just consider the two-dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra $mathfrak g$ with basis ${x,y}$ with $[x,y] = x$ and send $y$ to zero). I'm disturbed by this book... this might be a different question, but then again maybe not.
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 22 '16 at 1:46
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            You can actually find a proof of this claim in Milne, though you have to read it carefully. Right after proposition 6.4, he defines the nilpotent radical $mathfrak{s}$ of $mathfrak{g}$, which is the intersection of the kernels of all simple representations of $mathfrak{g}$. Since $mathfrak{s}$ is contained in the kernel of any semisimple representation of $mathfrak{g}$, the hypothesis that $mathfrak{g}$ has a faithful semisimple representation implies that $mathfrak{s}=0$.



            Milne then proves the following theorem (theorem 6.9):




            Let $mathfrak{g}$ be a Lie algebra, $mathfrak{r}$ its radical and $mathfrak{s}$ its nilpotent radical. Then $mathfrak{s} = [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]$.




            Looking at the proof, we see that the full theorem depends on proposition 6.4. However, the inclusion $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ does not. It only depends on lemmas 6.11 and 6.12, which are elementary.



            Since $mathfrak{s}=0$, we conclude that $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]=0$, so the radical $mathfrak{r}$ is contained in the center $Z(mathfrak{g})$. Note that the inclusion $Z(mathfrak{g}) subset mathfrak{r}$ always holds, so we conclude $Z(mathfrak{g})= mathfrak{r}$. This is Milne's definition of an algebra being reductive.



            In a sense, the $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ part of the theorem should have been stated and proved before proposition 6.4. Proposition 6.4 then follows quite easily.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            You can actually find a proof of this claim in Milne, though you have to read it carefully. Right after proposition 6.4, he defines the nilpotent radical $mathfrak{s}$ of $mathfrak{g}$, which is the intersection of the kernels of all simple representations of $mathfrak{g}$. Since $mathfrak{s}$ is contained in the kernel of any semisimple representation of $mathfrak{g}$, the hypothesis that $mathfrak{g}$ has a faithful semisimple representation implies that $mathfrak{s}=0$.



            Milne then proves the following theorem (theorem 6.9):




            Let $mathfrak{g}$ be a Lie algebra, $mathfrak{r}$ its radical and $mathfrak{s}$ its nilpotent radical. Then $mathfrak{s} = [mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]$.




            Looking at the proof, we see that the full theorem depends on proposition 6.4. However, the inclusion $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ does not. It only depends on lemmas 6.11 and 6.12, which are elementary.



            Since $mathfrak{s}=0$, we conclude that $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}]=0$, so the radical $mathfrak{r}$ is contained in the center $Z(mathfrak{g})$. Note that the inclusion $Z(mathfrak{g}) subset mathfrak{r}$ always holds, so we conclude $Z(mathfrak{g})= mathfrak{r}$. This is Milne's definition of an algebra being reductive.



            In a sense, the $[mathfrak{g}, mathfrak{r}] subset mathfrak{s}$ part of the theorem should have been stated and proved before proposition 6.4. Proposition 6.4 then follows quite easily.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 14 '16 at 21:06

























            answered Aug 14 '16 at 20:45









            Dominique R.F.Dominique R.F.

            1,7531717




            1,7531717








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I managed to do it your way (I'm not into Levi decompositions yet, so I can't do it Tsemo's way). So thanks for that. Do you know anything about Corollary 6.10? He seems to use that if $pi : mathfrak g to mathfrak g/mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)$ is the projection then $pi(mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)) = mathrm{rad}(pi(mathfrak g))$, which is very wrong (just consider the two-dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra $mathfrak g$ with basis ${x,y}$ with $[x,y] = x$ and send $y$ to zero). I'm disturbed by this book... this might be a different question, but then again maybe not.
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 22 '16 at 1:46
















            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I managed to do it your way (I'm not into Levi decompositions yet, so I can't do it Tsemo's way). So thanks for that. Do you know anything about Corollary 6.10? He seems to use that if $pi : mathfrak g to mathfrak g/mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)$ is the projection then $pi(mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)) = mathrm{rad}(pi(mathfrak g))$, which is very wrong (just consider the two-dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra $mathfrak g$ with basis ${x,y}$ with $[x,y] = x$ and send $y$ to zero). I'm disturbed by this book... this might be a different question, but then again maybe not.
              $endgroup$
              – Patrick Da Silva
              Aug 22 '16 at 1:46










            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            I managed to do it your way (I'm not into Levi decompositions yet, so I can't do it Tsemo's way). So thanks for that. Do you know anything about Corollary 6.10? He seems to use that if $pi : mathfrak g to mathfrak g/mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)$ is the projection then $pi(mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)) = mathrm{rad}(pi(mathfrak g))$, which is very wrong (just consider the two-dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra $mathfrak g$ with basis ${x,y}$ with $[x,y] = x$ and send $y$ to zero). I'm disturbed by this book... this might be a different question, but then again maybe not.
            $endgroup$
            – Patrick Da Silva
            Aug 22 '16 at 1:46






            $begingroup$
            I managed to do it your way (I'm not into Levi decompositions yet, so I can't do it Tsemo's way). So thanks for that. Do you know anything about Corollary 6.10? He seems to use that if $pi : mathfrak g to mathfrak g/mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)$ is the projection then $pi(mathrm{rad}(mathfrak g)) = mathrm{rad}(pi(mathfrak g))$, which is very wrong (just consider the two-dimensional non-abelian Lie algebra $mathfrak g$ with basis ${x,y}$ with $[x,y] = x$ and send $y$ to zero). I'm disturbed by this book... this might be a different question, but then again maybe not.
            $endgroup$
            – Patrick Da Silva
            Aug 22 '16 at 1:46













            0












            $begingroup$

            Here is a possibly different way of doing it:



            Claim: Let $mathfrak g$ be Lie algebra over $mathbb{R}$, and $I,J$ be two ideals of it such that $I cap J=0$ and such that $mathfrak g/I$,$mathfrak g/J$ are reductive then $mathfrak g$ is reductive as well. Proof: Let $p:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g /I,q:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g/J$ be the natural quotient maps. Let $A$ be an abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$, then $p[A]$ is abelian ideal $mathfrak g/I$ and by reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$ we get that $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I)$. Hence:
            $$p([A,mathfrak g])=[p(A),p(mathfrak g)]=[p(A),mathfrak g/I]=0 text{ (As $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g$/I) ) }$$
            So $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq I$, similarly we get $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq J $. Hence, $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq Icap J=0$, so $Asubseteq Z(mathfrak g)$. So every abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$ lives in its center. We also have
            $$p(Z(mathfrak g) cap {mathfrak g}^2)subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I) cap (mathfrak g/I)^2=0 text{ , (By reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$) } $$
            Thus, $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I$, a similar argument gives $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq J$, so $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I cap J=0$, and this completes the proof of reductivity of $mathfrak g$ $square$



            Now, we prove the statement: "Let $mathfrak g$ be a finite dimensional $mathbb{R}$- Lie algebra that admits a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module, then $mathfrak g$ is reductive" by induction on $dim(mathfrak g)$.



            Proof: Let $V$ be the faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module. If this representation is irreducible, then we are done because irreducible linear lie algebras are reductive. So assume that the representation is not irreducible. Let $S$ be a proper nontrivial $mathfrak g$-submodule of $V$. By complete reducibility, we have a $mathfrak g$-submodule $T$ of $V$ such that $V=Soplus T$. $V$ is completely reducible , thus so are the $mathfrak g$-submodules $S,T$. It follows that $S$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$-module and $T$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$-module. Hence, by induction we have that $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$, $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$ are reductive. By faithfulness, we have $Ann(S)cap Ann(T)=Ann(V)=0$ . So by previous claim, we are done. $square$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              0












              $begingroup$

              Here is a possibly different way of doing it:



              Claim: Let $mathfrak g$ be Lie algebra over $mathbb{R}$, and $I,J$ be two ideals of it such that $I cap J=0$ and such that $mathfrak g/I$,$mathfrak g/J$ are reductive then $mathfrak g$ is reductive as well. Proof: Let $p:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g /I,q:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g/J$ be the natural quotient maps. Let $A$ be an abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$, then $p[A]$ is abelian ideal $mathfrak g/I$ and by reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$ we get that $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I)$. Hence:
              $$p([A,mathfrak g])=[p(A),p(mathfrak g)]=[p(A),mathfrak g/I]=0 text{ (As $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g$/I) ) }$$
              So $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq I$, similarly we get $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq J $. Hence, $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq Icap J=0$, so $Asubseteq Z(mathfrak g)$. So every abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$ lives in its center. We also have
              $$p(Z(mathfrak g) cap {mathfrak g}^2)subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I) cap (mathfrak g/I)^2=0 text{ , (By reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$) } $$
              Thus, $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I$, a similar argument gives $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq J$, so $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I cap J=0$, and this completes the proof of reductivity of $mathfrak g$ $square$



              Now, we prove the statement: "Let $mathfrak g$ be a finite dimensional $mathbb{R}$- Lie algebra that admits a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module, then $mathfrak g$ is reductive" by induction on $dim(mathfrak g)$.



              Proof: Let $V$ be the faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module. If this representation is irreducible, then we are done because irreducible linear lie algebras are reductive. So assume that the representation is not irreducible. Let $S$ be a proper nontrivial $mathfrak g$-submodule of $V$. By complete reducibility, we have a $mathfrak g$-submodule $T$ of $V$ such that $V=Soplus T$. $V$ is completely reducible , thus so are the $mathfrak g$-submodules $S,T$. It follows that $S$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$-module and $T$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$-module. Hence, by induction we have that $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$, $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$ are reductive. By faithfulness, we have $Ann(S)cap Ann(T)=Ann(V)=0$ . So by previous claim, we are done. $square$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Here is a possibly different way of doing it:



                Claim: Let $mathfrak g$ be Lie algebra over $mathbb{R}$, and $I,J$ be two ideals of it such that $I cap J=0$ and such that $mathfrak g/I$,$mathfrak g/J$ are reductive then $mathfrak g$ is reductive as well. Proof: Let $p:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g /I,q:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g/J$ be the natural quotient maps. Let $A$ be an abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$, then $p[A]$ is abelian ideal $mathfrak g/I$ and by reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$ we get that $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I)$. Hence:
                $$p([A,mathfrak g])=[p(A),p(mathfrak g)]=[p(A),mathfrak g/I]=0 text{ (As $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g$/I) ) }$$
                So $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq I$, similarly we get $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq J $. Hence, $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq Icap J=0$, so $Asubseteq Z(mathfrak g)$. So every abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$ lives in its center. We also have
                $$p(Z(mathfrak g) cap {mathfrak g}^2)subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I) cap (mathfrak g/I)^2=0 text{ , (By reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$) } $$
                Thus, $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I$, a similar argument gives $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq J$, so $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I cap J=0$, and this completes the proof of reductivity of $mathfrak g$ $square$



                Now, we prove the statement: "Let $mathfrak g$ be a finite dimensional $mathbb{R}$- Lie algebra that admits a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module, then $mathfrak g$ is reductive" by induction on $dim(mathfrak g)$.



                Proof: Let $V$ be the faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module. If this representation is irreducible, then we are done because irreducible linear lie algebras are reductive. So assume that the representation is not irreducible. Let $S$ be a proper nontrivial $mathfrak g$-submodule of $V$. By complete reducibility, we have a $mathfrak g$-submodule $T$ of $V$ such that $V=Soplus T$. $V$ is completely reducible , thus so are the $mathfrak g$-submodules $S,T$. It follows that $S$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$-module and $T$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$-module. Hence, by induction we have that $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$, $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$ are reductive. By faithfulness, we have $Ann(S)cap Ann(T)=Ann(V)=0$ . So by previous claim, we are done. $square$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Here is a possibly different way of doing it:



                Claim: Let $mathfrak g$ be Lie algebra over $mathbb{R}$, and $I,J$ be two ideals of it such that $I cap J=0$ and such that $mathfrak g/I$,$mathfrak g/J$ are reductive then $mathfrak g$ is reductive as well. Proof: Let $p:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g /I,q:mathfrak grightarrow mathfrak g/J$ be the natural quotient maps. Let $A$ be an abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$, then $p[A]$ is abelian ideal $mathfrak g/I$ and by reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$ we get that $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I)$. Hence:
                $$p([A,mathfrak g])=[p(A),p(mathfrak g)]=[p(A),mathfrak g/I]=0 text{ (As $p[A]subseteq Z(mathfrak g$/I) ) }$$
                So $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq I$, similarly we get $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq J $. Hence, $[A,mathfrak g]subseteq Icap J=0$, so $Asubseteq Z(mathfrak g)$. So every abelian ideal of $mathfrak g$ lives in its center. We also have
                $$p(Z(mathfrak g) cap {mathfrak g}^2)subseteq Z(mathfrak g/I) cap (mathfrak g/I)^2=0 text{ , (By reductivity of $mathfrak g/I$) } $$
                Thus, $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I$, a similar argument gives $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq J$, so $Z(mathfrak g)cap mathfrak g^2subseteq I cap J=0$, and this completes the proof of reductivity of $mathfrak g$ $square$



                Now, we prove the statement: "Let $mathfrak g$ be a finite dimensional $mathbb{R}$- Lie algebra that admits a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module, then $mathfrak g$ is reductive" by induction on $dim(mathfrak g)$.



                Proof: Let $V$ be the faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g$-module. If this representation is irreducible, then we are done because irreducible linear lie algebras are reductive. So assume that the representation is not irreducible. Let $S$ be a proper nontrivial $mathfrak g$-submodule of $V$. By complete reducibility, we have a $mathfrak g$-submodule $T$ of $V$ such that $V=Soplus T$. $V$ is completely reducible , thus so are the $mathfrak g$-submodules $S,T$. It follows that $S$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$-module and $T$ is a faithful completely reducible $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$-module. Hence, by induction we have that $mathfrak g/Ann(S)$, $mathfrak g/Ann(T)$ are reductive. By faithfulness, we have $Ann(S)cap Ann(T)=Ann(V)=0$ . So by previous claim, we are done. $square$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 2 at 0:54









                AmrAmr

                14.5k43396




                14.5k43396






























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