sequence question proof [closed]
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If and we have an $Q > 1$
such that $a_{n+1}/{a_n} ≥ Q$ for all $n$. how would i show $(a_n) → ∞$?
Thanks
sequences-and-series
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
closed as off-topic by Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R Nov 19 at 13:17
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
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up vote
-4
down vote
favorite
If and we have an $Q > 1$
such that $a_{n+1}/{a_n} ≥ Q$ for all $n$. how would i show $(a_n) → ∞$?
Thanks
sequences-and-series
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
closed as off-topic by Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R Nov 19 at 13:17
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
add a comment |
up vote
-4
down vote
favorite
up vote
-4
down vote
favorite
If and we have an $Q > 1$
such that $a_{n+1}/{a_n} ≥ Q$ for all $n$. how would i show $(a_n) → ∞$?
Thanks
sequences-and-series
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
If and we have an $Q > 1$
such that $a_{n+1}/{a_n} ≥ Q$ for all $n$. how would i show $(a_n) → ∞$?
Thanks
sequences-and-series
sequences-and-series
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
edited Nov 19 at 10:56
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
asked Nov 19 at 3:35
peterjohn
32
32
closed as off-topic by Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R Nov 19 at 13:17
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
closed as off-topic by Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R Nov 19 at 13:17
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Nosrati, Shaun, Kavi Rama Murthy, max_zorn, Martin R
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
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0
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accepted
You have $a_n ge a_0Q^n$. As long as $a_0 gt 0$ and $Q gt 1$ this goes to $infty$
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
You have $a_n ge a_0Q^n$. As long as $a_0 gt 0$ and $Q gt 1$ this goes to $infty$
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
You have $a_n ge a_0Q^n$. As long as $a_0 gt 0$ and $Q gt 1$ this goes to $infty$
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
You have $a_n ge a_0Q^n$. As long as $a_0 gt 0$ and $Q gt 1$ this goes to $infty$
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
You have $a_n ge a_0Q^n$. As long as $a_0 gt 0$ and $Q gt 1$ this goes to $infty$
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
answered Nov 19 at 5:35
Ross Millikan
289k23195367
289k23195367
add a comment |
add a comment |
