Relating the mean value theorem to the directional derivatives












0












$begingroup$


I am having some trouble understanding the process for proving the following statement:



If $f'(x,v) = 0$ is a closed ball $B(x_0,r)$ for all $x$, show that $f$ is constant.



In the proof, we take two elements $x_1, x_2$ in $B(x_0,r)$, then we define the vector $v$ between $x_1$ and $x_2$ as $v = x_2 - x_1$, so $x_2 = v + x_1$. Finally, we apply the mean value theorem so that:



$f(x_1 +v) -f(x_1) = f'(x_1 + theta v, v) = 0$



I can not see how the above relates to the mean value theorem. Don't we need to divide by the distance between $x_2$ and $x_1$ on the left hand side? Could someone help me to fill in the missing steps?



Thanks for your help.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You see, the problem here is that it should have been $frac{f(x_1+v)-f(x_1)}{(x1+v)-x1} = f'(x_1+theta v,v) = 0$ thus $f(x_1+v) = f(x_1)$ right? However $(x1+v) - x1 = v$ is a vector now and not a real number so you can not divide by it and apply mean value theorem directly
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:27












  • $begingroup$
    What you should do in this case is to approach a little bit more carefully with the mean value theorem. For any given point $x_1$ in your ball define a new function: $f(t) = (1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1, t in [0,1]$ This function parametrises the segmen $[x_0,x_1]$ (the center of your ball and any other point inside of it.
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:31












  • $begingroup$
    Now, this function is diffrentiable on $[0,1]$ (can you see why?) Thus one can apply the mean vlaue theorem to this function at the points $0$ and $1$ for example as to get $f(x_1) - f(x_0) = f'(xi)(1 - 0) = 0$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:37












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry in my first comment I mistyped the function it should have been $g(t) = f[(1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1], t in [0,1]$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:38










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks famesyasd - that is clear now.
    $endgroup$
    – Christian
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:06
















0












$begingroup$


I am having some trouble understanding the process for proving the following statement:



If $f'(x,v) = 0$ is a closed ball $B(x_0,r)$ for all $x$, show that $f$ is constant.



In the proof, we take two elements $x_1, x_2$ in $B(x_0,r)$, then we define the vector $v$ between $x_1$ and $x_2$ as $v = x_2 - x_1$, so $x_2 = v + x_1$. Finally, we apply the mean value theorem so that:



$f(x_1 +v) -f(x_1) = f'(x_1 + theta v, v) = 0$



I can not see how the above relates to the mean value theorem. Don't we need to divide by the distance between $x_2$ and $x_1$ on the left hand side? Could someone help me to fill in the missing steps?



Thanks for your help.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You see, the problem here is that it should have been $frac{f(x_1+v)-f(x_1)}{(x1+v)-x1} = f'(x_1+theta v,v) = 0$ thus $f(x_1+v) = f(x_1)$ right? However $(x1+v) - x1 = v$ is a vector now and not a real number so you can not divide by it and apply mean value theorem directly
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:27












  • $begingroup$
    What you should do in this case is to approach a little bit more carefully with the mean value theorem. For any given point $x_1$ in your ball define a new function: $f(t) = (1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1, t in [0,1]$ This function parametrises the segmen $[x_0,x_1]$ (the center of your ball and any other point inside of it.
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:31












  • $begingroup$
    Now, this function is diffrentiable on $[0,1]$ (can you see why?) Thus one can apply the mean vlaue theorem to this function at the points $0$ and $1$ for example as to get $f(x_1) - f(x_0) = f'(xi)(1 - 0) = 0$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:37












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry in my first comment I mistyped the function it should have been $g(t) = f[(1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1], t in [0,1]$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:38










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks famesyasd - that is clear now.
    $endgroup$
    – Christian
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:06














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I am having some trouble understanding the process for proving the following statement:



If $f'(x,v) = 0$ is a closed ball $B(x_0,r)$ for all $x$, show that $f$ is constant.



In the proof, we take two elements $x_1, x_2$ in $B(x_0,r)$, then we define the vector $v$ between $x_1$ and $x_2$ as $v = x_2 - x_1$, so $x_2 = v + x_1$. Finally, we apply the mean value theorem so that:



$f(x_1 +v) -f(x_1) = f'(x_1 + theta v, v) = 0$



I can not see how the above relates to the mean value theorem. Don't we need to divide by the distance between $x_2$ and $x_1$ on the left hand side? Could someone help me to fill in the missing steps?



Thanks for your help.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I am having some trouble understanding the process for proving the following statement:



If $f'(x,v) = 0$ is a closed ball $B(x_0,r)$ for all $x$, show that $f$ is constant.



In the proof, we take two elements $x_1, x_2$ in $B(x_0,r)$, then we define the vector $v$ between $x_1$ and $x_2$ as $v = x_2 - x_1$, so $x_2 = v + x_1$. Finally, we apply the mean value theorem so that:



$f(x_1 +v) -f(x_1) = f'(x_1 + theta v, v) = 0$



I can not see how the above relates to the mean value theorem. Don't we need to divide by the distance between $x_2$ and $x_1$ on the left hand side? Could someone help me to fill in the missing steps?



Thanks for your help.







calculus






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 6 '18 at 0:49









ChristianChristian

388




388












  • $begingroup$
    You see, the problem here is that it should have been $frac{f(x_1+v)-f(x_1)}{(x1+v)-x1} = f'(x_1+theta v,v) = 0$ thus $f(x_1+v) = f(x_1)$ right? However $(x1+v) - x1 = v$ is a vector now and not a real number so you can not divide by it and apply mean value theorem directly
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:27












  • $begingroup$
    What you should do in this case is to approach a little bit more carefully with the mean value theorem. For any given point $x_1$ in your ball define a new function: $f(t) = (1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1, t in [0,1]$ This function parametrises the segmen $[x_0,x_1]$ (the center of your ball and any other point inside of it.
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:31












  • $begingroup$
    Now, this function is diffrentiable on $[0,1]$ (can you see why?) Thus one can apply the mean vlaue theorem to this function at the points $0$ and $1$ for example as to get $f(x_1) - f(x_0) = f'(xi)(1 - 0) = 0$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:37












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry in my first comment I mistyped the function it should have been $g(t) = f[(1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1], t in [0,1]$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:38










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks famesyasd - that is clear now.
    $endgroup$
    – Christian
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:06


















  • $begingroup$
    You see, the problem here is that it should have been $frac{f(x_1+v)-f(x_1)}{(x1+v)-x1} = f'(x_1+theta v,v) = 0$ thus $f(x_1+v) = f(x_1)$ right? However $(x1+v) - x1 = v$ is a vector now and not a real number so you can not divide by it and apply mean value theorem directly
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:27












  • $begingroup$
    What you should do in this case is to approach a little bit more carefully with the mean value theorem. For any given point $x_1$ in your ball define a new function: $f(t) = (1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1, t in [0,1]$ This function parametrises the segmen $[x_0,x_1]$ (the center of your ball and any other point inside of it.
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:31












  • $begingroup$
    Now, this function is diffrentiable on $[0,1]$ (can you see why?) Thus one can apply the mean vlaue theorem to this function at the points $0$ and $1$ for example as to get $f(x_1) - f(x_0) = f'(xi)(1 - 0) = 0$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:37












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry in my first comment I mistyped the function it should have been $g(t) = f[(1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1], t in [0,1]$
    $endgroup$
    – famesyasd
    Dec 6 '18 at 2:38










  • $begingroup$
    Thanks famesyasd - that is clear now.
    $endgroup$
    – Christian
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:06
















$begingroup$
You see, the problem here is that it should have been $frac{f(x_1+v)-f(x_1)}{(x1+v)-x1} = f'(x_1+theta v,v) = 0$ thus $f(x_1+v) = f(x_1)$ right? However $(x1+v) - x1 = v$ is a vector now and not a real number so you can not divide by it and apply mean value theorem directly
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:27






$begingroup$
You see, the problem here is that it should have been $frac{f(x_1+v)-f(x_1)}{(x1+v)-x1} = f'(x_1+theta v,v) = 0$ thus $f(x_1+v) = f(x_1)$ right? However $(x1+v) - x1 = v$ is a vector now and not a real number so you can not divide by it and apply mean value theorem directly
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:27














$begingroup$
What you should do in this case is to approach a little bit more carefully with the mean value theorem. For any given point $x_1$ in your ball define a new function: $f(t) = (1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1, t in [0,1]$ This function parametrises the segmen $[x_0,x_1]$ (the center of your ball and any other point inside of it.
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:31






$begingroup$
What you should do in this case is to approach a little bit more carefully with the mean value theorem. For any given point $x_1$ in your ball define a new function: $f(t) = (1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1, t in [0,1]$ This function parametrises the segmen $[x_0,x_1]$ (the center of your ball and any other point inside of it.
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:31














$begingroup$
Now, this function is diffrentiable on $[0,1]$ (can you see why?) Thus one can apply the mean vlaue theorem to this function at the points $0$ and $1$ for example as to get $f(x_1) - f(x_0) = f'(xi)(1 - 0) = 0$
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:37






$begingroup$
Now, this function is diffrentiable on $[0,1]$ (can you see why?) Thus one can apply the mean vlaue theorem to this function at the points $0$ and $1$ for example as to get $f(x_1) - f(x_0) = f'(xi)(1 - 0) = 0$
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:37














$begingroup$
I'm sorry in my first comment I mistyped the function it should have been $g(t) = f[(1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1], t in [0,1]$
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:38




$begingroup$
I'm sorry in my first comment I mistyped the function it should have been $g(t) = f[(1-t)cdot x_0 + tcdot x_1], t in [0,1]$
$endgroup$
– famesyasd
Dec 6 '18 at 2:38












$begingroup$
Thanks famesyasd - that is clear now.
$endgroup$
– Christian
Dec 6 '18 at 12:06




$begingroup$
Thanks famesyasd - that is clear now.
$endgroup$
– Christian
Dec 6 '18 at 12:06










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

$newcommand{bm}[1]{boldsymbol {#1}}$ Let $F(t) = f(bm x_1 + t bm v)$ where $tin [0,1]$. Then $F(0)=f(bm x_1), F(1)= f(bm x_2)$ and $F$ is continuous on $[0, 1]$, since each $f'(bm y, bm v)$ exists and equals $0$. Now check the differentiability of $F$: for each $kin (0,1)$,
$$
lim_{hto 0} frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = lim_{hto 0} frac {f((bm x_1 +kbm v) + h bm v)-f(bm x_1 + kbm v)}h,
$$

and note that
$$
f'(bm y, bm v) := lim_{tto 0}frac {f(bm y + tbm v) - f(bm y)}t
$$

provided that the limit exists, we have
$$
lim_{h to 0}frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = f'(bm x + kbm v, bm v),
$$

i.e.
$$
F'(k) = f'(bm x_1 +kbm v , bm v).
$$

So by Lagrange's MVT,
$$
F(1) - F(0) = 1 cdot F'(k),
$$

which is just
$$
f(bm x_2) - f(bm x_1) = f'(bm x_1 + kbm v, bm v),
$$

as shown in the OP.



To conclude, that "division by $bm x_1, bm x_2$" is included in the expression of the directional derivatives.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






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    active

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    active

    oldest

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    1












    $begingroup$

    $newcommand{bm}[1]{boldsymbol {#1}}$ Let $F(t) = f(bm x_1 + t bm v)$ where $tin [0,1]$. Then $F(0)=f(bm x_1), F(1)= f(bm x_2)$ and $F$ is continuous on $[0, 1]$, since each $f'(bm y, bm v)$ exists and equals $0$. Now check the differentiability of $F$: for each $kin (0,1)$,
    $$
    lim_{hto 0} frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = lim_{hto 0} frac {f((bm x_1 +kbm v) + h bm v)-f(bm x_1 + kbm v)}h,
    $$

    and note that
    $$
    f'(bm y, bm v) := lim_{tto 0}frac {f(bm y + tbm v) - f(bm y)}t
    $$

    provided that the limit exists, we have
    $$
    lim_{h to 0}frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = f'(bm x + kbm v, bm v),
    $$

    i.e.
    $$
    F'(k) = f'(bm x_1 +kbm v , bm v).
    $$

    So by Lagrange's MVT,
    $$
    F(1) - F(0) = 1 cdot F'(k),
    $$

    which is just
    $$
    f(bm x_2) - f(bm x_1) = f'(bm x_1 + kbm v, bm v),
    $$

    as shown in the OP.



    To conclude, that "division by $bm x_1, bm x_2$" is included in the expression of the directional derivatives.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      $newcommand{bm}[1]{boldsymbol {#1}}$ Let $F(t) = f(bm x_1 + t bm v)$ where $tin [0,1]$. Then $F(0)=f(bm x_1), F(1)= f(bm x_2)$ and $F$ is continuous on $[0, 1]$, since each $f'(bm y, bm v)$ exists and equals $0$. Now check the differentiability of $F$: for each $kin (0,1)$,
      $$
      lim_{hto 0} frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = lim_{hto 0} frac {f((bm x_1 +kbm v) + h bm v)-f(bm x_1 + kbm v)}h,
      $$

      and note that
      $$
      f'(bm y, bm v) := lim_{tto 0}frac {f(bm y + tbm v) - f(bm y)}t
      $$

      provided that the limit exists, we have
      $$
      lim_{h to 0}frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = f'(bm x + kbm v, bm v),
      $$

      i.e.
      $$
      F'(k) = f'(bm x_1 +kbm v , bm v).
      $$

      So by Lagrange's MVT,
      $$
      F(1) - F(0) = 1 cdot F'(k),
      $$

      which is just
      $$
      f(bm x_2) - f(bm x_1) = f'(bm x_1 + kbm v, bm v),
      $$

      as shown in the OP.



      To conclude, that "division by $bm x_1, bm x_2$" is included in the expression of the directional derivatives.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        $newcommand{bm}[1]{boldsymbol {#1}}$ Let $F(t) = f(bm x_1 + t bm v)$ where $tin [0,1]$. Then $F(0)=f(bm x_1), F(1)= f(bm x_2)$ and $F$ is continuous on $[0, 1]$, since each $f'(bm y, bm v)$ exists and equals $0$. Now check the differentiability of $F$: for each $kin (0,1)$,
        $$
        lim_{hto 0} frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = lim_{hto 0} frac {f((bm x_1 +kbm v) + h bm v)-f(bm x_1 + kbm v)}h,
        $$

        and note that
        $$
        f'(bm y, bm v) := lim_{tto 0}frac {f(bm y + tbm v) - f(bm y)}t
        $$

        provided that the limit exists, we have
        $$
        lim_{h to 0}frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = f'(bm x + kbm v, bm v),
        $$

        i.e.
        $$
        F'(k) = f'(bm x_1 +kbm v , bm v).
        $$

        So by Lagrange's MVT,
        $$
        F(1) - F(0) = 1 cdot F'(k),
        $$

        which is just
        $$
        f(bm x_2) - f(bm x_1) = f'(bm x_1 + kbm v, bm v),
        $$

        as shown in the OP.



        To conclude, that "division by $bm x_1, bm x_2$" is included in the expression of the directional derivatives.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        $newcommand{bm}[1]{boldsymbol {#1}}$ Let $F(t) = f(bm x_1 + t bm v)$ where $tin [0,1]$. Then $F(0)=f(bm x_1), F(1)= f(bm x_2)$ and $F$ is continuous on $[0, 1]$, since each $f'(bm y, bm v)$ exists and equals $0$. Now check the differentiability of $F$: for each $kin (0,1)$,
        $$
        lim_{hto 0} frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = lim_{hto 0} frac {f((bm x_1 +kbm v) + h bm v)-f(bm x_1 + kbm v)}h,
        $$

        and note that
        $$
        f'(bm y, bm v) := lim_{tto 0}frac {f(bm y + tbm v) - f(bm y)}t
        $$

        provided that the limit exists, we have
        $$
        lim_{h to 0}frac {F(k+h) - F(k)}h = f'(bm x + kbm v, bm v),
        $$

        i.e.
        $$
        F'(k) = f'(bm x_1 +kbm v , bm v).
        $$

        So by Lagrange's MVT,
        $$
        F(1) - F(0) = 1 cdot F'(k),
        $$

        which is just
        $$
        f(bm x_2) - f(bm x_1) = f'(bm x_1 + kbm v, bm v),
        $$

        as shown in the OP.



        To conclude, that "division by $bm x_1, bm x_2$" is included in the expression of the directional derivatives.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 6 '18 at 5:24









        xbhxbh

        6,3001522




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