If the set of all upper bounds of $A$ and $B$ are equal and $sup A$ exists, then $sup B$ exists and $sup...











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Caution: Axiom of Completeness is not assumed here.



Before reading my attempt, I want you to think up a proof of your own.



Here is my attempt:




Let $D$ be the set of all upper bounds of $A$ as well as $B$. Since $sup A$ exists, $sup A le d$ for all $d in D$. It also means $D$ is bounded below.
Now I have to show that $inf D$ exists and is equal to $sup A$. (This is the part that I have no idea how to approach.)
Then since $inf D$ exists, $sup B$ exists and is equal to $inf D$. Therefore, $sup A = sup B$.




This concludes my proof. Two questions:




  1. How do I show the part in my proof where I was stuck?

  2. Is there any other way to prove it? Preferably much simpler. I want to see some other ways.










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Caution: Axiom of Completeness is not assumed here.



    Before reading my attempt, I want you to think up a proof of your own.



    Here is my attempt:




    Let $D$ be the set of all upper bounds of $A$ as well as $B$. Since $sup A$ exists, $sup A le d$ for all $d in D$. It also means $D$ is bounded below.
    Now I have to show that $inf D$ exists and is equal to $sup A$. (This is the part that I have no idea how to approach.)
    Then since $inf D$ exists, $sup B$ exists and is equal to $inf D$. Therefore, $sup A = sup B$.




    This concludes my proof. Two questions:




    1. How do I show the part in my proof where I was stuck?

    2. Is there any other way to prove it? Preferably much simpler. I want to see some other ways.










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Caution: Axiom of Completeness is not assumed here.



      Before reading my attempt, I want you to think up a proof of your own.



      Here is my attempt:




      Let $D$ be the set of all upper bounds of $A$ as well as $B$. Since $sup A$ exists, $sup A le d$ for all $d in D$. It also means $D$ is bounded below.
      Now I have to show that $inf D$ exists and is equal to $sup A$. (This is the part that I have no idea how to approach.)
      Then since $inf D$ exists, $sup B$ exists and is equal to $inf D$. Therefore, $sup A = sup B$.




      This concludes my proof. Two questions:




      1. How do I show the part in my proof where I was stuck?

      2. Is there any other way to prove it? Preferably much simpler. I want to see some other ways.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Caution: Axiom of Completeness is not assumed here.



      Before reading my attempt, I want you to think up a proof of your own.



      Here is my attempt:




      Let $D$ be the set of all upper bounds of $A$ as well as $B$. Since $sup A$ exists, $sup A le d$ for all $d in D$. It also means $D$ is bounded below.
      Now I have to show that $inf D$ exists and is equal to $sup A$. (This is the part that I have no idea how to approach.)
      Then since $inf D$ exists, $sup B$ exists and is equal to $inf D$. Therefore, $sup A = sup B$.




      This concludes my proof. Two questions:




      1. How do I show the part in my proof where I was stuck?

      2. Is there any other way to prove it? Preferably much simpler. I want to see some other ways.







      real-analysis proof-verification proof-explanation alternative-proof






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      asked yesterday









      Salman Qureshi

      11518




      11518






















          2 Answers
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          up vote
          2
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          accepted










          Let $U(A)$ be the set of upper bounds for $A.$ The definition of $sup A$ is $min U(A),$ which exists iff $U(A)$ has a least member.



          Suppose $U(A)=U(B)$ and that $sup A$ exists. Then $min U(A)$ exists. So $min U(B)=min U(A)$ exists because $U(A)$ and $U(B)$ are the same thing.



          Hence $sup A=min U(A)=min U(B)=sup B.$






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          • Thanks! I got it,
            – Salman Qureshi
            4 hours ago


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          You need to at some point invoke the definition of $sup$ (or something that follows from it), because otherwise you're just talking about a symbol you know nothing about.



          One definition of $sup A$ is a real number $M$ such that:




          • For every $a in A$, $a le M$.

          • For every $epsilon>0$, there is an $a in A$ such that $a > M-epsilon$.


          So you want to prove:




          1. For every $b in B$, $b le M$. This is true because $M$ is an upper bound on $A$, therefore it is an upper bound on $B$.

          2. For every $epsilon>0$, there is a $b in B$ such that $b > M - epsilon$. This is easiest to prove by contradiction. Suppose that there is some $epsilon>0$, such that for all $b in B$, $b le M-epsilon$. Then $M-epsilon$ is an upper bound on $B$, therefore it is an upper bound on $A$. This means that for all $a in A$, $a le M-epsilon$, which contradicts the definition above. Therefore no such $epsilon$ can exist.


          Obviously this is a bit specific to the definion you're using. Another definiton of $sup A$, instead of the statement with $epsilon$, specifies that if $M'$ is another upper bound on $A$, then $M le M'$. This would lead to a different proof, but the idea is the same.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Let $U(A)$ be the set of upper bounds for $A.$ The definition of $sup A$ is $min U(A),$ which exists iff $U(A)$ has a least member.



            Suppose $U(A)=U(B)$ and that $sup A$ exists. Then $min U(A)$ exists. So $min U(B)=min U(A)$ exists because $U(A)$ and $U(B)$ are the same thing.



            Hence $sup A=min U(A)=min U(B)=sup B.$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Thanks! I got it,
              – Salman Qureshi
              4 hours ago















            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Let $U(A)$ be the set of upper bounds for $A.$ The definition of $sup A$ is $min U(A),$ which exists iff $U(A)$ has a least member.



            Suppose $U(A)=U(B)$ and that $sup A$ exists. Then $min U(A)$ exists. So $min U(B)=min U(A)$ exists because $U(A)$ and $U(B)$ are the same thing.



            Hence $sup A=min U(A)=min U(B)=sup B.$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Thanks! I got it,
              – Salman Qureshi
              4 hours ago













            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted






            Let $U(A)$ be the set of upper bounds for $A.$ The definition of $sup A$ is $min U(A),$ which exists iff $U(A)$ has a least member.



            Suppose $U(A)=U(B)$ and that $sup A$ exists. Then $min U(A)$ exists. So $min U(B)=min U(A)$ exists because $U(A)$ and $U(B)$ are the same thing.



            Hence $sup A=min U(A)=min U(B)=sup B.$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Let $U(A)$ be the set of upper bounds for $A.$ The definition of $sup A$ is $min U(A),$ which exists iff $U(A)$ has a least member.



            Suppose $U(A)=U(B)$ and that $sup A$ exists. Then $min U(A)$ exists. So $min U(B)=min U(A)$ exists because $U(A)$ and $U(B)$ are the same thing.



            Hence $sup A=min U(A)=min U(B)=sup B.$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 8 hours ago









            DanielWainfleet

            33.1k31645




            33.1k31645












            • Thanks! I got it,
              – Salman Qureshi
              4 hours ago


















            • Thanks! I got it,
              – Salman Qureshi
              4 hours ago
















            Thanks! I got it,
            – Salman Qureshi
            4 hours ago




            Thanks! I got it,
            – Salman Qureshi
            4 hours ago










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            You need to at some point invoke the definition of $sup$ (or something that follows from it), because otherwise you're just talking about a symbol you know nothing about.



            One definition of $sup A$ is a real number $M$ such that:




            • For every $a in A$, $a le M$.

            • For every $epsilon>0$, there is an $a in A$ such that $a > M-epsilon$.


            So you want to prove:




            1. For every $b in B$, $b le M$. This is true because $M$ is an upper bound on $A$, therefore it is an upper bound on $B$.

            2. For every $epsilon>0$, there is a $b in B$ such that $b > M - epsilon$. This is easiest to prove by contradiction. Suppose that there is some $epsilon>0$, such that for all $b in B$, $b le M-epsilon$. Then $M-epsilon$ is an upper bound on $B$, therefore it is an upper bound on $A$. This means that for all $a in A$, $a le M-epsilon$, which contradicts the definition above. Therefore no such $epsilon$ can exist.


            Obviously this is a bit specific to the definion you're using. Another definiton of $sup A$, instead of the statement with $epsilon$, specifies that if $M'$ is another upper bound on $A$, then $M le M'$. This would lead to a different proof, but the idea is the same.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              You need to at some point invoke the definition of $sup$ (or something that follows from it), because otherwise you're just talking about a symbol you know nothing about.



              One definition of $sup A$ is a real number $M$ such that:




              • For every $a in A$, $a le M$.

              • For every $epsilon>0$, there is an $a in A$ such that $a > M-epsilon$.


              So you want to prove:




              1. For every $b in B$, $b le M$. This is true because $M$ is an upper bound on $A$, therefore it is an upper bound on $B$.

              2. For every $epsilon>0$, there is a $b in B$ such that $b > M - epsilon$. This is easiest to prove by contradiction. Suppose that there is some $epsilon>0$, such that for all $b in B$, $b le M-epsilon$. Then $M-epsilon$ is an upper bound on $B$, therefore it is an upper bound on $A$. This means that for all $a in A$, $a le M-epsilon$, which contradicts the definition above. Therefore no such $epsilon$ can exist.


              Obviously this is a bit specific to the definion you're using. Another definiton of $sup A$, instead of the statement with $epsilon$, specifies that if $M'$ is another upper bound on $A$, then $M le M'$. This would lead to a different proof, but the idea is the same.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                You need to at some point invoke the definition of $sup$ (or something that follows from it), because otherwise you're just talking about a symbol you know nothing about.



                One definition of $sup A$ is a real number $M$ such that:




                • For every $a in A$, $a le M$.

                • For every $epsilon>0$, there is an $a in A$ such that $a > M-epsilon$.


                So you want to prove:




                1. For every $b in B$, $b le M$. This is true because $M$ is an upper bound on $A$, therefore it is an upper bound on $B$.

                2. For every $epsilon>0$, there is a $b in B$ such that $b > M - epsilon$. This is easiest to prove by contradiction. Suppose that there is some $epsilon>0$, such that for all $b in B$, $b le M-epsilon$. Then $M-epsilon$ is an upper bound on $B$, therefore it is an upper bound on $A$. This means that for all $a in A$, $a le M-epsilon$, which contradicts the definition above. Therefore no such $epsilon$ can exist.


                Obviously this is a bit specific to the definion you're using. Another definiton of $sup A$, instead of the statement with $epsilon$, specifies that if $M'$ is another upper bound on $A$, then $M le M'$. This would lead to a different proof, but the idea is the same.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                You need to at some point invoke the definition of $sup$ (or something that follows from it), because otherwise you're just talking about a symbol you know nothing about.



                One definition of $sup A$ is a real number $M$ such that:




                • For every $a in A$, $a le M$.

                • For every $epsilon>0$, there is an $a in A$ such that $a > M-epsilon$.


                So you want to prove:




                1. For every $b in B$, $b le M$. This is true because $M$ is an upper bound on $A$, therefore it is an upper bound on $B$.

                2. For every $epsilon>0$, there is a $b in B$ such that $b > M - epsilon$. This is easiest to prove by contradiction. Suppose that there is some $epsilon>0$, such that for all $b in B$, $b le M-epsilon$. Then $M-epsilon$ is an upper bound on $B$, therefore it is an upper bound on $A$. This means that for all $a in A$, $a le M-epsilon$, which contradicts the definition above. Therefore no such $epsilon$ can exist.


                Obviously this is a bit specific to the definion you're using. Another definiton of $sup A$, instead of the statement with $epsilon$, specifies that if $M'$ is another upper bound on $A$, then $M le M'$. This would lead to a different proof, but the idea is the same.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered yesterday









                Misha Lavrov

                41.1k553100




                41.1k553100






























                     

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