Question regarding motivation of spectral theorem for unitary operators











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$newcommand{mc}{mathcal}$
$newcommand{ab}[1]{langle #1rangle}$



Theorem B.4 in Einsiedler and Ward's [EW] Ergodic Theory with a view towards Number Theory states the following:




Theorem 1.
Spectral Theorem.
Let $U $be a unitary operator on a complex Hilbert space $H$.
$(1)$ For each element $fin H$, there is a unique Borel measure $mu_f$ on $S^1$ with the property that
$$
ab{U^nf, f} = int_{S^1} z^n dmu_f(z)
$$


(2) The map
$$
sum_{n=-N}^N c_nz^n mapsto sum_{n=-N}^N c_n U^n f
$$

extends by continuity to a unitary isomorphism between $L^2(S^1, mu_f)$ and the smallest $U$-invariant subspace in $H$ containing $f$.




(There was some text here. Thanks to @DisintegrationByParts for pointing our an error. I have thus removed the text.)




Question 1.
I do not see any motivation for the theorem.
The statement seems out of the blue. Can somebody provide some perspective here?




Lastly, let $(X, mc F, mu, T)$ be a measure-preserving system.
Thus $U_T:L^2(X, mu)to L^2(X, mu)$ defined as $fmapsto fcirc T$ is a unitary operator.




Question 2.
If $gin L^2(X, mu)$, what is the meaning of the phrase ``By item (2) of the theorem above, $L^2(S^1, mu_g)$ is unitarily isomorphic to the cyclic sub-representation of $L^2(X, mu)$ generated by $g$ under the unitary map $U_T$."




The statement in quotes appears on pg 184 of EW. I am not able to see what is the representation here. The group is probably $S^1$, and the vector space is $L^2(X, mu)$. But the representation itself is not clear.



Also, how does item (2) of the theorem relate with representations?



Thank you.










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  • 1




    Your version of the spectral theorem for normal operators is not true. Perhaps you were studying compact operators at the time?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    yesterday






  • 1




    Ah! Let me go back and revise. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    yesterday










  • Do you know the classical Spectral Theorem for normal operators involving a projection-valued measure $P$, where $U = int_{sigma(U)}zdP(z)$?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago












  • I do not. Can you please articulate it in an answer and if possible give a reference. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    22 hours ago










  • The spectral theorem involving spectral measures is not easily explained in a post. But it is the motivation for other versions, which is why other versions often seem unmotivated.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    14 hours ago















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












$newcommand{mc}{mathcal}$
$newcommand{ab}[1]{langle #1rangle}$



Theorem B.4 in Einsiedler and Ward's [EW] Ergodic Theory with a view towards Number Theory states the following:




Theorem 1.
Spectral Theorem.
Let $U $be a unitary operator on a complex Hilbert space $H$.
$(1)$ For each element $fin H$, there is a unique Borel measure $mu_f$ on $S^1$ with the property that
$$
ab{U^nf, f} = int_{S^1} z^n dmu_f(z)
$$


(2) The map
$$
sum_{n=-N}^N c_nz^n mapsto sum_{n=-N}^N c_n U^n f
$$

extends by continuity to a unitary isomorphism between $L^2(S^1, mu_f)$ and the smallest $U$-invariant subspace in $H$ containing $f$.




(There was some text here. Thanks to @DisintegrationByParts for pointing our an error. I have thus removed the text.)




Question 1.
I do not see any motivation for the theorem.
The statement seems out of the blue. Can somebody provide some perspective here?




Lastly, let $(X, mc F, mu, T)$ be a measure-preserving system.
Thus $U_T:L^2(X, mu)to L^2(X, mu)$ defined as $fmapsto fcirc T$ is a unitary operator.




Question 2.
If $gin L^2(X, mu)$, what is the meaning of the phrase ``By item (2) of the theorem above, $L^2(S^1, mu_g)$ is unitarily isomorphic to the cyclic sub-representation of $L^2(X, mu)$ generated by $g$ under the unitary map $U_T$."




The statement in quotes appears on pg 184 of EW. I am not able to see what is the representation here. The group is probably $S^1$, and the vector space is $L^2(X, mu)$. But the representation itself is not clear.



Also, how does item (2) of the theorem relate with representations?



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Your version of the spectral theorem for normal operators is not true. Perhaps you were studying compact operators at the time?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    yesterday






  • 1




    Ah! Let me go back and revise. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    yesterday










  • Do you know the classical Spectral Theorem for normal operators involving a projection-valued measure $P$, where $U = int_{sigma(U)}zdP(z)$?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago












  • I do not. Can you please articulate it in an answer and if possible give a reference. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    22 hours ago










  • The spectral theorem involving spectral measures is not easily explained in a post. But it is the motivation for other versions, which is why other versions often seem unmotivated.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    14 hours ago













up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





$newcommand{mc}{mathcal}$
$newcommand{ab}[1]{langle #1rangle}$



Theorem B.4 in Einsiedler and Ward's [EW] Ergodic Theory with a view towards Number Theory states the following:




Theorem 1.
Spectral Theorem.
Let $U $be a unitary operator on a complex Hilbert space $H$.
$(1)$ For each element $fin H$, there is a unique Borel measure $mu_f$ on $S^1$ with the property that
$$
ab{U^nf, f} = int_{S^1} z^n dmu_f(z)
$$


(2) The map
$$
sum_{n=-N}^N c_nz^n mapsto sum_{n=-N}^N c_n U^n f
$$

extends by continuity to a unitary isomorphism between $L^2(S^1, mu_f)$ and the smallest $U$-invariant subspace in $H$ containing $f$.




(There was some text here. Thanks to @DisintegrationByParts for pointing our an error. I have thus removed the text.)




Question 1.
I do not see any motivation for the theorem.
The statement seems out of the blue. Can somebody provide some perspective here?




Lastly, let $(X, mc F, mu, T)$ be a measure-preserving system.
Thus $U_T:L^2(X, mu)to L^2(X, mu)$ defined as $fmapsto fcirc T$ is a unitary operator.




Question 2.
If $gin L^2(X, mu)$, what is the meaning of the phrase ``By item (2) of the theorem above, $L^2(S^1, mu_g)$ is unitarily isomorphic to the cyclic sub-representation of $L^2(X, mu)$ generated by $g$ under the unitary map $U_T$."




The statement in quotes appears on pg 184 of EW. I am not able to see what is the representation here. The group is probably $S^1$, and the vector space is $L^2(X, mu)$. But the representation itself is not clear.



Also, how does item (2) of the theorem relate with representations?



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question















$newcommand{mc}{mathcal}$
$newcommand{ab}[1]{langle #1rangle}$



Theorem B.4 in Einsiedler and Ward's [EW] Ergodic Theory with a view towards Number Theory states the following:




Theorem 1.
Spectral Theorem.
Let $U $be a unitary operator on a complex Hilbert space $H$.
$(1)$ For each element $fin H$, there is a unique Borel measure $mu_f$ on $S^1$ with the property that
$$
ab{U^nf, f} = int_{S^1} z^n dmu_f(z)
$$


(2) The map
$$
sum_{n=-N}^N c_nz^n mapsto sum_{n=-N}^N c_n U^n f
$$

extends by continuity to a unitary isomorphism between $L^2(S^1, mu_f)$ and the smallest $U$-invariant subspace in $H$ containing $f$.




(There was some text here. Thanks to @DisintegrationByParts for pointing our an error. I have thus removed the text.)




Question 1.
I do not see any motivation for the theorem.
The statement seems out of the blue. Can somebody provide some perspective here?




Lastly, let $(X, mc F, mu, T)$ be a measure-preserving system.
Thus $U_T:L^2(X, mu)to L^2(X, mu)$ defined as $fmapsto fcirc T$ is a unitary operator.




Question 2.
If $gin L^2(X, mu)$, what is the meaning of the phrase ``By item (2) of the theorem above, $L^2(S^1, mu_g)$ is unitarily isomorphic to the cyclic sub-representation of $L^2(X, mu)$ generated by $g$ under the unitary map $U_T$."




The statement in quotes appears on pg 184 of EW. I am not able to see what is the representation here. The group is probably $S^1$, and the vector space is $L^2(X, mu)$. But the representation itself is not clear.



Also, how does item (2) of the theorem relate with representations?



Thank you.







functional-analysis measure-theory representation-theory ergodic-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited yesterday

























asked yesterday









caffeinemachine

6,36721248




6,36721248








  • 1




    Your version of the spectral theorem for normal operators is not true. Perhaps you were studying compact operators at the time?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    yesterday






  • 1




    Ah! Let me go back and revise. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    yesterday










  • Do you know the classical Spectral Theorem for normal operators involving a projection-valued measure $P$, where $U = int_{sigma(U)}zdP(z)$?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago












  • I do not. Can you please articulate it in an answer and if possible give a reference. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    22 hours ago










  • The spectral theorem involving spectral measures is not easily explained in a post. But it is the motivation for other versions, which is why other versions often seem unmotivated.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    14 hours ago














  • 1




    Your version of the spectral theorem for normal operators is not true. Perhaps you were studying compact operators at the time?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    yesterday






  • 1




    Ah! Let me go back and revise. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    yesterday










  • Do you know the classical Spectral Theorem for normal operators involving a projection-valued measure $P$, where $U = int_{sigma(U)}zdP(z)$?
    – DisintegratingByParts
    22 hours ago












  • I do not. Can you please articulate it in an answer and if possible give a reference. Thanks.
    – caffeinemachine
    22 hours ago










  • The spectral theorem involving spectral measures is not easily explained in a post. But it is the motivation for other versions, which is why other versions often seem unmotivated.
    – DisintegratingByParts
    14 hours ago








1




1




Your version of the spectral theorem for normal operators is not true. Perhaps you were studying compact operators at the time?
– DisintegratingByParts
yesterday




Your version of the spectral theorem for normal operators is not true. Perhaps you were studying compact operators at the time?
– DisintegratingByParts
yesterday




1




1




Ah! Let me go back and revise. Thanks.
– caffeinemachine
yesterday




Ah! Let me go back and revise. Thanks.
– caffeinemachine
yesterday












Do you know the classical Spectral Theorem for normal operators involving a projection-valued measure $P$, where $U = int_{sigma(U)}zdP(z)$?
– DisintegratingByParts
22 hours ago






Do you know the classical Spectral Theorem for normal operators involving a projection-valued measure $P$, where $U = int_{sigma(U)}zdP(z)$?
– DisintegratingByParts
22 hours ago














I do not. Can you please articulate it in an answer and if possible give a reference. Thanks.
– caffeinemachine
22 hours ago




I do not. Can you please articulate it in an answer and if possible give a reference. Thanks.
– caffeinemachine
22 hours ago












The spectral theorem involving spectral measures is not easily explained in a post. But it is the motivation for other versions, which is why other versions often seem unmotivated.
– DisintegratingByParts
14 hours ago




The spectral theorem involving spectral measures is not easily explained in a post. But it is the motivation for other versions, which is why other versions often seem unmotivated.
– DisintegratingByParts
14 hours ago










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You have a unitary representation $pi:mathbb{Z} to Unit(L^2(X))$. This induces a *-homomorphism $pi:L^1(mathbb{Z}) to Lin(L^2(X)): (pi(f)u,v):= int f(n)(pi(n)u,v)dn$ (Folland's harmonic analysis theorem $3.9$).



$L^1(mathbb{Z})$ is a unital, commutative, Banach algebra whose spectrum can be identified with $S^1$, the dual of $mathbb{Z}$ (Folland theorem 4.2).



Theorem $1.54$ of the same book then shows how to obtain part $(1)$ of the theorem in EW.



I'm guessing that for $(2)$, theorem $1.47$ (and perhaps also theorem $4.44$) of Folland's book are relevant.






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    You have a unitary representation $pi:mathbb{Z} to Unit(L^2(X))$. This induces a *-homomorphism $pi:L^1(mathbb{Z}) to Lin(L^2(X)): (pi(f)u,v):= int f(n)(pi(n)u,v)dn$ (Folland's harmonic analysis theorem $3.9$).



    $L^1(mathbb{Z})$ is a unital, commutative, Banach algebra whose spectrum can be identified with $S^1$, the dual of $mathbb{Z}$ (Folland theorem 4.2).



    Theorem $1.54$ of the same book then shows how to obtain part $(1)$ of the theorem in EW.



    I'm guessing that for $(2)$, theorem $1.47$ (and perhaps also theorem $4.44$) of Folland's book are relevant.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
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      You have a unitary representation $pi:mathbb{Z} to Unit(L^2(X))$. This induces a *-homomorphism $pi:L^1(mathbb{Z}) to Lin(L^2(X)): (pi(f)u,v):= int f(n)(pi(n)u,v)dn$ (Folland's harmonic analysis theorem $3.9$).



      $L^1(mathbb{Z})$ is a unital, commutative, Banach algebra whose spectrum can be identified with $S^1$, the dual of $mathbb{Z}$ (Folland theorem 4.2).



      Theorem $1.54$ of the same book then shows how to obtain part $(1)$ of the theorem in EW.



      I'm guessing that for $(2)$, theorem $1.47$ (and perhaps also theorem $4.44$) of Folland's book are relevant.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























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        up vote
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        You have a unitary representation $pi:mathbb{Z} to Unit(L^2(X))$. This induces a *-homomorphism $pi:L^1(mathbb{Z}) to Lin(L^2(X)): (pi(f)u,v):= int f(n)(pi(n)u,v)dn$ (Folland's harmonic analysis theorem $3.9$).



        $L^1(mathbb{Z})$ is a unital, commutative, Banach algebra whose spectrum can be identified with $S^1$, the dual of $mathbb{Z}$ (Folland theorem 4.2).



        Theorem $1.54$ of the same book then shows how to obtain part $(1)$ of the theorem in EW.



        I'm guessing that for $(2)$, theorem $1.47$ (and perhaps also theorem $4.44$) of Folland's book are relevant.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        You have a unitary representation $pi:mathbb{Z} to Unit(L^2(X))$. This induces a *-homomorphism $pi:L^1(mathbb{Z}) to Lin(L^2(X)): (pi(f)u,v):= int f(n)(pi(n)u,v)dn$ (Folland's harmonic analysis theorem $3.9$).



        $L^1(mathbb{Z})$ is a unital, commutative, Banach algebra whose spectrum can be identified with $S^1$, the dual of $mathbb{Z}$ (Folland theorem 4.2).



        Theorem $1.54$ of the same book then shows how to obtain part $(1)$ of the theorem in EW.



        I'm guessing that for $(2)$, theorem $1.47$ (and perhaps also theorem $4.44$) of Folland's book are relevant.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








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