Does $N(mn)|N(m)N(n)$ for $gcd(m,n)=1$? (Fibonacci Sequence)












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Consider Fibonacci Sequence Mod m, n and mn. And let N(m) be the period of Fibonacci Sequence mod m. For several $m,n$ I tried to compare $N(mn)$ with $N(m)N(n)$. It looks that there is no specific pattern, but for $gcd(m,n)=1$ it looks $N(mn)|N(m)N(n)$. Could you write some hint, I don't know how to start proving if it is true?










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    1












    $begingroup$


    Consider Fibonacci Sequence Mod m, n and mn. And let N(m) be the period of Fibonacci Sequence mod m. For several $m,n$ I tried to compare $N(mn)$ with $N(m)N(n)$. It looks that there is no specific pattern, but for $gcd(m,n)=1$ it looks $N(mn)|N(m)N(n)$. Could you write some hint, I don't know how to start proving if it is true?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Consider Fibonacci Sequence Mod m, n and mn. And let N(m) be the period of Fibonacci Sequence mod m. For several $m,n$ I tried to compare $N(mn)$ with $N(m)N(n)$. It looks that there is no specific pattern, but for $gcd(m,n)=1$ it looks $N(mn)|N(m)N(n)$. Could you write some hint, I don't know how to start proving if it is true?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Consider Fibonacci Sequence Mod m, n and mn. And let N(m) be the period of Fibonacci Sequence mod m. For several $m,n$ I tried to compare $N(mn)$ with $N(m)N(n)$. It looks that there is no specific pattern, but for $gcd(m,n)=1$ it looks $N(mn)|N(m)N(n)$. Could you write some hint, I don't know how to start proving if it is true?







      number-theory divisibility fibonacci-numbers






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      edited Dec 4 '18 at 14:23









      Chickenmancer

      3,314724




      3,314724










      asked Dec 4 '18 at 14:13









      72D72D

      512117




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          $begingroup$

          Suppose $m$ and $n$ are coprime. Since $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod m$
          and $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod n$ we have $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod mn$.
          Thus $N(mn) mid N(m) N(n)$.



          There's nothing special about Fibonacci numbers here: this would work for any sequence that is periodic mod $m$ and mod $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Could you explain in a little more detail? In particular, why are the statements involving mod true?
            $endgroup$
            – Chickenmancer
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:24










          • $begingroup$
            By definition, if a sequence $a_j$ is periodic mod $m$ with period $p$, $a_{j+kp} equiv a_j mod m$ for any integer $k$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:26











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          $begingroup$

          Suppose $m$ and $n$ are coprime. Since $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod m$
          and $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod n$ we have $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod mn$.
          Thus $N(mn) mid N(m) N(n)$.



          There's nothing special about Fibonacci numbers here: this would work for any sequence that is periodic mod $m$ and mod $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Could you explain in a little more detail? In particular, why are the statements involving mod true?
            $endgroup$
            – Chickenmancer
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:24










          • $begingroup$
            By definition, if a sequence $a_j$ is periodic mod $m$ with period $p$, $a_{j+kp} equiv a_j mod m$ for any integer $k$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:26
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Suppose $m$ and $n$ are coprime. Since $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod m$
          and $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod n$ we have $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod mn$.
          Thus $N(mn) mid N(m) N(n)$.



          There's nothing special about Fibonacci numbers here: this would work for any sequence that is periodic mod $m$ and mod $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Could you explain in a little more detail? In particular, why are the statements involving mod true?
            $endgroup$
            – Chickenmancer
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:24










          • $begingroup$
            By definition, if a sequence $a_j$ is periodic mod $m$ with period $p$, $a_{j+kp} equiv a_j mod m$ for any integer $k$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:26














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Suppose $m$ and $n$ are coprime. Since $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod m$
          and $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod n$ we have $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod mn$.
          Thus $N(mn) mid N(m) N(n)$.



          There's nothing special about Fibonacci numbers here: this would work for any sequence that is periodic mod $m$ and mod $n$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Suppose $m$ and $n$ are coprime. Since $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod m$
          and $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod n$ we have $F_{j+N(m)N(n)} equiv F_j mod mn$.
          Thus $N(mn) mid N(m) N(n)$.



          There's nothing special about Fibonacci numbers here: this would work for any sequence that is periodic mod $m$ and mod $n$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 4 '18 at 14:24

























          answered Dec 4 '18 at 14:22









          Robert IsraelRobert Israel

          325k23214468




          325k23214468








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Could you explain in a little more detail? In particular, why are the statements involving mod true?
            $endgroup$
            – Chickenmancer
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:24










          • $begingroup$
            By definition, if a sequence $a_j$ is periodic mod $m$ with period $p$, $a_{j+kp} equiv a_j mod m$ for any integer $k$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:26














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Could you explain in a little more detail? In particular, why are the statements involving mod true?
            $endgroup$
            – Chickenmancer
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:24










          • $begingroup$
            By definition, if a sequence $a_j$ is periodic mod $m$ with period $p$, $a_{j+kp} equiv a_j mod m$ for any integer $k$.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 4 '18 at 14:26








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Could you explain in a little more detail? In particular, why are the statements involving mod true?
          $endgroup$
          – Chickenmancer
          Dec 4 '18 at 14:24




          $begingroup$
          Could you explain in a little more detail? In particular, why are the statements involving mod true?
          $endgroup$
          – Chickenmancer
          Dec 4 '18 at 14:24












          $begingroup$
          By definition, if a sequence $a_j$ is periodic mod $m$ with period $p$, $a_{j+kp} equiv a_j mod m$ for any integer $k$.
          $endgroup$
          – Robert Israel
          Dec 4 '18 at 14:26




          $begingroup$
          By definition, if a sequence $a_j$ is periodic mod $m$ with period $p$, $a_{j+kp} equiv a_j mod m$ for any integer $k$.
          $endgroup$
          – Robert Israel
          Dec 4 '18 at 14:26


















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