Vietoris Topology












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$begingroup$


‎let ‎‎$ X ‎‎‎‎$ ‎be a‎ ‎topological ‎space ‎and‎ ‎$ operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎ $ ‎is ‎the set of all ‎closed ‎non-empty subsets of $X$ .‎‎



If $ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎ldots ‎V_{n}‎$ ‎are ‎the non-empty open subset ‎in ‎$ ‎X‎$‎‎‎, ‎define:‎



$$ ‎langle U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots V_{‎n}‎ rangle ‎ ‎ =‎ ‎{ F‎ ‎in operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎‎mid F‎subseteq‎ ‎U,‎ forall 1‎‎ leq i ‎‎‎leq n ‎‎‎:‎ F‎cap ‎V_{i} ‎neq emptyset}‎$$



families ‎$ B‎ ‎‎ $‎i‎ncludes all sets of the form $langle‎ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots, ‎V_{‎n} rangle ‎$ ‎is ‎‎the basis for a topology for ‎$ ‎Exp (‎ X‎ ) ‎$‎‎
This topology is called the Vietoris topology.



My ‎question:‎



if ‎‎$ ‎X‎$ ‎is ‎‎a $T_{1}$ ‎space, ‎then ‎is the Vietoris ‎topology ‎ ‎‎$ ‎T_{1}‎$‎?‎










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    ‎let ‎‎$ X ‎‎‎‎$ ‎be a‎ ‎topological ‎space ‎and‎ ‎$ operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎ $ ‎is ‎the set of all ‎closed ‎non-empty subsets of $X$ .‎‎



    If $ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎ldots ‎V_{n}‎$ ‎are ‎the non-empty open subset ‎in ‎$ ‎X‎$‎‎‎, ‎define:‎



    $$ ‎langle U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots V_{‎n}‎ rangle ‎ ‎ =‎ ‎{ F‎ ‎in operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎‎mid F‎subseteq‎ ‎U,‎ forall 1‎‎ leq i ‎‎‎leq n ‎‎‎:‎ F‎cap ‎V_{i} ‎neq emptyset}‎$$



    families ‎$ B‎ ‎‎ $‎i‎ncludes all sets of the form $langle‎ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots, ‎V_{‎n} rangle ‎$ ‎is ‎‎the basis for a topology for ‎$ ‎Exp (‎ X‎ ) ‎$‎‎
    This topology is called the Vietoris topology.



    My ‎question:‎



    if ‎‎$ ‎X‎$ ‎is ‎‎a $T_{1}$ ‎space, ‎then ‎is the Vietoris ‎topology ‎ ‎‎$ ‎T_{1}‎$‎?‎










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      3



      $begingroup$


      ‎let ‎‎$ X ‎‎‎‎$ ‎be a‎ ‎topological ‎space ‎and‎ ‎$ operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎ $ ‎is ‎the set of all ‎closed ‎non-empty subsets of $X$ .‎‎



      If $ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎ldots ‎V_{n}‎$ ‎are ‎the non-empty open subset ‎in ‎$ ‎X‎$‎‎‎, ‎define:‎



      $$ ‎langle U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots V_{‎n}‎ rangle ‎ ‎ =‎ ‎{ F‎ ‎in operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎‎mid F‎subseteq‎ ‎U,‎ forall 1‎‎ leq i ‎‎‎leq n ‎‎‎:‎ F‎cap ‎V_{i} ‎neq emptyset}‎$$



      families ‎$ B‎ ‎‎ $‎i‎ncludes all sets of the form $langle‎ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots, ‎V_{‎n} rangle ‎$ ‎is ‎‎the basis for a topology for ‎$ ‎Exp (‎ X‎ ) ‎$‎‎
      This topology is called the Vietoris topology.



      My ‎question:‎



      if ‎‎$ ‎X‎$ ‎is ‎‎a $T_{1}$ ‎space, ‎then ‎is the Vietoris ‎topology ‎ ‎‎$ ‎T_{1}‎$‎?‎










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      ‎let ‎‎$ X ‎‎‎‎$ ‎be a‎ ‎topological ‎space ‎and‎ ‎$ operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎ $ ‎is ‎the set of all ‎closed ‎non-empty subsets of $X$ .‎‎



      If $ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎ldots ‎V_{n}‎$ ‎are ‎the non-empty open subset ‎in ‎$ ‎X‎$‎‎‎, ‎define:‎



      $$ ‎langle U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots V_{‎n}‎ rangle ‎ ‎ =‎ ‎{ F‎ ‎in operatorname{‎Exp}(X‎)‎‎‎‎mid F‎subseteq‎ ‎U,‎ forall 1‎‎ leq i ‎‎‎leq n ‎‎‎:‎ F‎cap ‎V_{i} ‎neq emptyset}‎$$



      families ‎$ B‎ ‎‎ $‎i‎ncludes all sets of the form $langle‎ U , ‎V‎_{‎1‎}‎, V‎_{‎2‎}‎, ldots, ‎V_{‎n} rangle ‎$ ‎is ‎‎the basis for a topology for ‎$ ‎Exp (‎ X‎ ) ‎$‎‎
      This topology is called the Vietoris topology.



      My ‎question:‎



      if ‎‎$ ‎X‎$ ‎is ‎‎a $T_{1}$ ‎space, ‎then ‎is the Vietoris ‎topology ‎ ‎‎$ ‎T_{1}‎$‎?‎







      general-topology






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      edited Dec 31 '18 at 7:18









      Martin Sleziak

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      asked Feb 24 '17 at 11:25









      M.OM.O

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          $begingroup$

          This topology is called the Vietoris topology on $operatorname{Exp}(X)$, also denoted (as I usually do) by $H(X)$ or $2^X$, the hyperspace of $X$.



          I normally use a standard subbase for this, for every non-empty open set $U subset X$,
          define $[U] = {F in H(X): F cap U neq emptyset}$ and $langle U rangle = {F in H(X): F subseteq U}$. Then $langle U, V_1, ldots, V_nrangle = langle U rangle cap cap_{i=1}^n [V_i]$, so your base $B$ is the base generated by this subbase. Also note that $[U] = langle X, Urangle$, so is indeed open.
          The subbase is especially handy when proving compactness of $H(X)$, using the Alexander subbase lemma, BTW.



          As to the $T_1$ question: yes.



          Suppose $A neq B$ are two different points in $H(X)$.
          So we can assume that $exists x in A, x notin B$ (by symmetry, or we rename our sets).



          Then $Xsetminus B$ is open, $A in [Xsetminus B] $ (as witnessed by $x$), $B notin [X setminus B]$ by definition, and $X setminus {x}$ is open as $X$ is $T_1$ and $B in langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $ and $A notin langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $, as witnesses by $x$ again.



          So for two points we have open sets that contain one and not the other. So $H(X)$ is $T_1$.






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            $begingroup$

            This topology is called the Vietoris topology on $operatorname{Exp}(X)$, also denoted (as I usually do) by $H(X)$ or $2^X$, the hyperspace of $X$.



            I normally use a standard subbase for this, for every non-empty open set $U subset X$,
            define $[U] = {F in H(X): F cap U neq emptyset}$ and $langle U rangle = {F in H(X): F subseteq U}$. Then $langle U, V_1, ldots, V_nrangle = langle U rangle cap cap_{i=1}^n [V_i]$, so your base $B$ is the base generated by this subbase. Also note that $[U] = langle X, Urangle$, so is indeed open.
            The subbase is especially handy when proving compactness of $H(X)$, using the Alexander subbase lemma, BTW.



            As to the $T_1$ question: yes.



            Suppose $A neq B$ are two different points in $H(X)$.
            So we can assume that $exists x in A, x notin B$ (by symmetry, or we rename our sets).



            Then $Xsetminus B$ is open, $A in [Xsetminus B] $ (as witnessed by $x$), $B notin [X setminus B]$ by definition, and $X setminus {x}$ is open as $X$ is $T_1$ and $B in langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $ and $A notin langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $, as witnesses by $x$ again.



            So for two points we have open sets that contain one and not the other. So $H(X)$ is $T_1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              5












              $begingroup$

              This topology is called the Vietoris topology on $operatorname{Exp}(X)$, also denoted (as I usually do) by $H(X)$ or $2^X$, the hyperspace of $X$.



              I normally use a standard subbase for this, for every non-empty open set $U subset X$,
              define $[U] = {F in H(X): F cap U neq emptyset}$ and $langle U rangle = {F in H(X): F subseteq U}$. Then $langle U, V_1, ldots, V_nrangle = langle U rangle cap cap_{i=1}^n [V_i]$, so your base $B$ is the base generated by this subbase. Also note that $[U] = langle X, Urangle$, so is indeed open.
              The subbase is especially handy when proving compactness of $H(X)$, using the Alexander subbase lemma, BTW.



              As to the $T_1$ question: yes.



              Suppose $A neq B$ are two different points in $H(X)$.
              So we can assume that $exists x in A, x notin B$ (by symmetry, or we rename our sets).



              Then $Xsetminus B$ is open, $A in [Xsetminus B] $ (as witnessed by $x$), $B notin [X setminus B]$ by definition, and $X setminus {x}$ is open as $X$ is $T_1$ and $B in langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $ and $A notin langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $, as witnesses by $x$ again.



              So for two points we have open sets that contain one and not the other. So $H(X)$ is $T_1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                5












                5








                5





                $begingroup$

                This topology is called the Vietoris topology on $operatorname{Exp}(X)$, also denoted (as I usually do) by $H(X)$ or $2^X$, the hyperspace of $X$.



                I normally use a standard subbase for this, for every non-empty open set $U subset X$,
                define $[U] = {F in H(X): F cap U neq emptyset}$ and $langle U rangle = {F in H(X): F subseteq U}$. Then $langle U, V_1, ldots, V_nrangle = langle U rangle cap cap_{i=1}^n [V_i]$, so your base $B$ is the base generated by this subbase. Also note that $[U] = langle X, Urangle$, so is indeed open.
                The subbase is especially handy when proving compactness of $H(X)$, using the Alexander subbase lemma, BTW.



                As to the $T_1$ question: yes.



                Suppose $A neq B$ are two different points in $H(X)$.
                So we can assume that $exists x in A, x notin B$ (by symmetry, or we rename our sets).



                Then $Xsetminus B$ is open, $A in [Xsetminus B] $ (as witnessed by $x$), $B notin [X setminus B]$ by definition, and $X setminus {x}$ is open as $X$ is $T_1$ and $B in langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $ and $A notin langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $, as witnesses by $x$ again.



                So for two points we have open sets that contain one and not the other. So $H(X)$ is $T_1$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                This topology is called the Vietoris topology on $operatorname{Exp}(X)$, also denoted (as I usually do) by $H(X)$ or $2^X$, the hyperspace of $X$.



                I normally use a standard subbase for this, for every non-empty open set $U subset X$,
                define $[U] = {F in H(X): F cap U neq emptyset}$ and $langle U rangle = {F in H(X): F subseteq U}$. Then $langle U, V_1, ldots, V_nrangle = langle U rangle cap cap_{i=1}^n [V_i]$, so your base $B$ is the base generated by this subbase. Also note that $[U] = langle X, Urangle$, so is indeed open.
                The subbase is especially handy when proving compactness of $H(X)$, using the Alexander subbase lemma, BTW.



                As to the $T_1$ question: yes.



                Suppose $A neq B$ are two different points in $H(X)$.
                So we can assume that $exists x in A, x notin B$ (by symmetry, or we rename our sets).



                Then $Xsetminus B$ is open, $A in [Xsetminus B] $ (as witnessed by $x$), $B notin [X setminus B]$ by definition, and $X setminus {x}$ is open as $X$ is $T_1$ and $B in langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $ and $A notin langle Xsetminus {x}rangle $, as witnesses by $x$ again.



                So for two points we have open sets that contain one and not the other. So $H(X)$ is $T_1$.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Oct 26 '18 at 13:30

























                answered Feb 24 '17 at 17:09









                Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

                117k349127




                117k349127






























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