Testing convergence of improper integral with a variable a












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$begingroup$


I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
$$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
I have tried the following:
$left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$

and:
$frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.

So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
$frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
$int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.



However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
    $$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
    I have tried the following:
    $left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$

    and:
    $frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.

    So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
    $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
    $int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
    Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.



    However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
    Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
      $$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
      I have tried the following:
      $left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$

      and:
      $frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.

      So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
      $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
      $int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
      Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.



      However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
      Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I have trouble determining for which $ain mathbb{R};$ the following improper integral converges:
      $$int_0^1frac{ln(x)}{x^a}dx$$
      I have tried the following:
      $left|frac{ln(x)}{x^a}right|=frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ for $0<xleq 1$

      and:
      $frac{1}{x}>-ln(x)$ on this interval.

      So $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}>frac{-ln(x)}{x^a}$ (on this interval)
      $frac{frac{1}{x}}{x^a}$ can be written as a p-integral:
      $int_0^1 x^{-p} dx$ with $p = a+1.$
      Thus, I concluded, the improper integral converges for $a<0$ since the p-integral does too.



      However, I'm asking myself whether this is the right way to tackle these kinds of problems, especially since I have no idea how to prove/disprove convergence for $ageq 0.$
      Is what I have done above right? And how should I go about testing convergence for $ageq 0$?







      convergence improper-integrals






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Dec 1 '18 at 20:17









      user376343

      3,7883828




      3,7883828










      asked Dec 1 '18 at 19:55









      Renze SutersRenze Suters

      11




      11






















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