List of proofs of Weierstrass Approximation Theorem












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I am looking for different proofs of the theorem :



If $f$ is a continuous real-valued function on $[a,b]$ and if any $epsilon>0$ is given, then there exists a polynomial $p$ on $[a,b]$ such that



$|f(x)-P(x)|< epsilon $
for all $x in [a,b]$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I am looking for different proofs of the theorem :



    If $f$ is a continuous real-valued function on $[a,b]$ and if any $epsilon>0$ is given, then there exists a polynomial $p$ on $[a,b]$ such that



    $|f(x)-P(x)|< epsilon $
    for all $x in [a,b]$.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I am looking for different proofs of the theorem :



      If $f$ is a continuous real-valued function on $[a,b]$ and if any $epsilon>0$ is given, then there exists a polynomial $p$ on $[a,b]$ such that



      $|f(x)-P(x)|< epsilon $
      for all $x in [a,b]$.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am looking for different proofs of the theorem :



      If $f$ is a continuous real-valued function on $[a,b]$ and if any $epsilon>0$ is given, then there exists a polynomial $p$ on $[a,b]$ such that



      $|f(x)-P(x)|< epsilon $
      for all $x in [a,b]$.







      analysis






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 1 '18 at 20:02









      mike mokemike moke

      406




      406






















          1 Answer
          1






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          2












          $begingroup$

          My favorite proof uses probability! Here are two exercises that will help you prove it.




          Step 1: Let $Z_n$ be a sequence of random variables and $c$ a constant such that for each $epsilon > 0$ it holds
          that $$mathbb{P}[|Z_n −c| > epsilon] rightarrow 0, text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$ Show that for any bounded continuous function $g,$
          $$mathbb{E}[g(Z_n)] rightarrow g(c) text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$




          A hint for Step $1$ is to use the fact that $g$ is bounded and the definition of continuity.




          Step 2: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous function in $[0,1]$. Consider the $textit{Bernstein Polynomials,}$ defined by
          $$ B_n(x) = sum_{k=0}^n f left( frac{k}n right) dbinom{n}k x^k (1-x)^{n-k}. $$
          Show that $B_n rightarrow f$ uniformly.




          A hint for Step $2$ is to use the weak law of large numbers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I have seen the proof which uses only Bernstein Polynomials . I am looking for a proof that uses Lagrange Interpolating Polynomial . Thanks for your post , I will try to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – mike moke
            Dec 2 '18 at 6:22











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          My favorite proof uses probability! Here are two exercises that will help you prove it.




          Step 1: Let $Z_n$ be a sequence of random variables and $c$ a constant such that for each $epsilon > 0$ it holds
          that $$mathbb{P}[|Z_n −c| > epsilon] rightarrow 0, text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$ Show that for any bounded continuous function $g,$
          $$mathbb{E}[g(Z_n)] rightarrow g(c) text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$




          A hint for Step $1$ is to use the fact that $g$ is bounded and the definition of continuity.




          Step 2: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous function in $[0,1]$. Consider the $textit{Bernstein Polynomials,}$ defined by
          $$ B_n(x) = sum_{k=0}^n f left( frac{k}n right) dbinom{n}k x^k (1-x)^{n-k}. $$
          Show that $B_n rightarrow f$ uniformly.




          A hint for Step $2$ is to use the weak law of large numbers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I have seen the proof which uses only Bernstein Polynomials . I am looking for a proof that uses Lagrange Interpolating Polynomial . Thanks for your post , I will try to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – mike moke
            Dec 2 '18 at 6:22
















          2












          $begingroup$

          My favorite proof uses probability! Here are two exercises that will help you prove it.




          Step 1: Let $Z_n$ be a sequence of random variables and $c$ a constant such that for each $epsilon > 0$ it holds
          that $$mathbb{P}[|Z_n −c| > epsilon] rightarrow 0, text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$ Show that for any bounded continuous function $g,$
          $$mathbb{E}[g(Z_n)] rightarrow g(c) text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$




          A hint for Step $1$ is to use the fact that $g$ is bounded and the definition of continuity.




          Step 2: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous function in $[0,1]$. Consider the $textit{Bernstein Polynomials,}$ defined by
          $$ B_n(x) = sum_{k=0}^n f left( frac{k}n right) dbinom{n}k x^k (1-x)^{n-k}. $$
          Show that $B_n rightarrow f$ uniformly.




          A hint for Step $2$ is to use the weak law of large numbers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I have seen the proof which uses only Bernstein Polynomials . I am looking for a proof that uses Lagrange Interpolating Polynomial . Thanks for your post , I will try to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – mike moke
            Dec 2 '18 at 6:22














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          My favorite proof uses probability! Here are two exercises that will help you prove it.




          Step 1: Let $Z_n$ be a sequence of random variables and $c$ a constant such that for each $epsilon > 0$ it holds
          that $$mathbb{P}[|Z_n −c| > epsilon] rightarrow 0, text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$ Show that for any bounded continuous function $g,$
          $$mathbb{E}[g(Z_n)] rightarrow g(c) text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$




          A hint for Step $1$ is to use the fact that $g$ is bounded and the definition of continuity.




          Step 2: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous function in $[0,1]$. Consider the $textit{Bernstein Polynomials,}$ defined by
          $$ B_n(x) = sum_{k=0}^n f left( frac{k}n right) dbinom{n}k x^k (1-x)^{n-k}. $$
          Show that $B_n rightarrow f$ uniformly.




          A hint for Step $2$ is to use the weak law of large numbers.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          My favorite proof uses probability! Here are two exercises that will help you prove it.




          Step 1: Let $Z_n$ be a sequence of random variables and $c$ a constant such that for each $epsilon > 0$ it holds
          that $$mathbb{P}[|Z_n −c| > epsilon] rightarrow 0, text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$ Show that for any bounded continuous function $g,$
          $$mathbb{E}[g(Z_n)] rightarrow g(c) text{as } n rightarrow 0.$$




          A hint for Step $1$ is to use the fact that $g$ is bounded and the definition of continuity.




          Step 2: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous function in $[0,1]$. Consider the $textit{Bernstein Polynomials,}$ defined by
          $$ B_n(x) = sum_{k=0}^n f left( frac{k}n right) dbinom{n}k x^k (1-x)^{n-k}. $$
          Show that $B_n rightarrow f$ uniformly.




          A hint for Step $2$ is to use the weak law of large numbers.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 1 '18 at 20:38









          Sandeep SilwalSandeep Silwal

          5,86811237




          5,86811237












          • $begingroup$
            I have seen the proof which uses only Bernstein Polynomials . I am looking for a proof that uses Lagrange Interpolating Polynomial . Thanks for your post , I will try to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – mike moke
            Dec 2 '18 at 6:22


















          • $begingroup$
            I have seen the proof which uses only Bernstein Polynomials . I am looking for a proof that uses Lagrange Interpolating Polynomial . Thanks for your post , I will try to prove it.
            $endgroup$
            – mike moke
            Dec 2 '18 at 6:22
















          $begingroup$
          I have seen the proof which uses only Bernstein Polynomials . I am looking for a proof that uses Lagrange Interpolating Polynomial . Thanks for your post , I will try to prove it.
          $endgroup$
          – mike moke
          Dec 2 '18 at 6:22




          $begingroup$
          I have seen the proof which uses only Bernstein Polynomials . I am looking for a proof that uses Lagrange Interpolating Polynomial . Thanks for your post , I will try to prove it.
          $endgroup$
          – mike moke
          Dec 2 '18 at 6:22


















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