If $mathcal N$ non measurable, ${0}times mathcal N$ is measurable in $mathbb R^2$, but $m({0}times mathcal...












1












$begingroup$


We define product measure on complete measurable spaces because if $N$ is a nul set and $M$ is measurable, we want that $$m_2(Ntimes M)=m_1(N)m_1(M)=0.$$
Let $(mathbb R^2, mathcal Mtimes mathcal M, m_2)$ the Lebesgue measure space on $mathbb R^2$. We have that $$mathcal Mtimes mathcal M=sigma ({Atimes Bmid A,Bin mathcal M}),$$
and it's a complete measurable space. I know that for all $Atimes Bin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ we have that $$m_2(Atimes B)=m_1(A)m_1(B).tag{*}$$



But if $mathcal N$ is non measurable (for example Vitali set), then ${0}times mathcal N$ has measure $0$ and thus is in $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$. But don't we have that $$m_2({0}times mathcal N)neq m_1({0})m_1(mathcal N) ?$$
So $(*)$ is wrong ? Could someone explain ?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The detail here is that the Vitali set $mathcal{N}$ is not in the sigma algebra $mathcal{M}$ that you are considering for which $(star)$ holds, precisely because it is not measurable.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    $mathcal{N}notinmathcal{M}$
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The expression $m(A times B) = mA cdot mB$ is only valid if both $A,B$ are measurable. However, in a complete measure space any subset of a set of measure zero has measure zero.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:41












  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat: So you agree that ${0}times mathcal Nin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ (since it has measure $0$ it is measurable, no ?)
    $endgroup$
    – NewMath
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:43












  • $begingroup$
    No. If the $sigma$-field containing $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ is complete then ${0} times mathcal N$ will be in the $sigma$-field.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:45
















1












$begingroup$


We define product measure on complete measurable spaces because if $N$ is a nul set and $M$ is measurable, we want that $$m_2(Ntimes M)=m_1(N)m_1(M)=0.$$
Let $(mathbb R^2, mathcal Mtimes mathcal M, m_2)$ the Lebesgue measure space on $mathbb R^2$. We have that $$mathcal Mtimes mathcal M=sigma ({Atimes Bmid A,Bin mathcal M}),$$
and it's a complete measurable space. I know that for all $Atimes Bin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ we have that $$m_2(Atimes B)=m_1(A)m_1(B).tag{*}$$



But if $mathcal N$ is non measurable (for example Vitali set), then ${0}times mathcal N$ has measure $0$ and thus is in $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$. But don't we have that $$m_2({0}times mathcal N)neq m_1({0})m_1(mathcal N) ?$$
So $(*)$ is wrong ? Could someone explain ?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The detail here is that the Vitali set $mathcal{N}$ is not in the sigma algebra $mathcal{M}$ that you are considering for which $(star)$ holds, precisely because it is not measurable.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    $mathcal{N}notinmathcal{M}$
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The expression $m(A times B) = mA cdot mB$ is only valid if both $A,B$ are measurable. However, in a complete measure space any subset of a set of measure zero has measure zero.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:41












  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat: So you agree that ${0}times mathcal Nin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ (since it has measure $0$ it is measurable, no ?)
    $endgroup$
    – NewMath
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:43












  • $begingroup$
    No. If the $sigma$-field containing $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ is complete then ${0} times mathcal N$ will be in the $sigma$-field.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:45














1












1








1





$begingroup$


We define product measure on complete measurable spaces because if $N$ is a nul set and $M$ is measurable, we want that $$m_2(Ntimes M)=m_1(N)m_1(M)=0.$$
Let $(mathbb R^2, mathcal Mtimes mathcal M, m_2)$ the Lebesgue measure space on $mathbb R^2$. We have that $$mathcal Mtimes mathcal M=sigma ({Atimes Bmid A,Bin mathcal M}),$$
and it's a complete measurable space. I know that for all $Atimes Bin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ we have that $$m_2(Atimes B)=m_1(A)m_1(B).tag{*}$$



But if $mathcal N$ is non measurable (for example Vitali set), then ${0}times mathcal N$ has measure $0$ and thus is in $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$. But don't we have that $$m_2({0}times mathcal N)neq m_1({0})m_1(mathcal N) ?$$
So $(*)$ is wrong ? Could someone explain ?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




We define product measure on complete measurable spaces because if $N$ is a nul set and $M$ is measurable, we want that $$m_2(Ntimes M)=m_1(N)m_1(M)=0.$$
Let $(mathbb R^2, mathcal Mtimes mathcal M, m_2)$ the Lebesgue measure space on $mathbb R^2$. We have that $$mathcal Mtimes mathcal M=sigma ({Atimes Bmid A,Bin mathcal M}),$$
and it's a complete measurable space. I know that for all $Atimes Bin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ we have that $$m_2(Atimes B)=m_1(A)m_1(B).tag{*}$$



But if $mathcal N$ is non measurable (for example Vitali set), then ${0}times mathcal N$ has measure $0$ and thus is in $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$. But don't we have that $$m_2({0}times mathcal N)neq m_1({0})m_1(mathcal N) ?$$
So $(*)$ is wrong ? Could someone explain ?







measure-theory lebesgue-measure






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asked Dec 3 '18 at 21:29









NewMathNewMath

4059




4059








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The detail here is that the Vitali set $mathcal{N}$ is not in the sigma algebra $mathcal{M}$ that you are considering for which $(star)$ holds, precisely because it is not measurable.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    $mathcal{N}notinmathcal{M}$
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The expression $m(A times B) = mA cdot mB$ is only valid if both $A,B$ are measurable. However, in a complete measure space any subset of a set of measure zero has measure zero.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:41












  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat: So you agree that ${0}times mathcal Nin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ (since it has measure $0$ it is measurable, no ?)
    $endgroup$
    – NewMath
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:43












  • $begingroup$
    No. If the $sigma$-field containing $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ is complete then ${0} times mathcal N$ will be in the $sigma$-field.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:45














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The detail here is that the Vitali set $mathcal{N}$ is not in the sigma algebra $mathcal{M}$ that you are considering for which $(star)$ holds, precisely because it is not measurable.
    $endgroup$
    – Guido A.
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    $mathcal{N}notinmathcal{M}$
    $endgroup$
    – Ben W
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:34






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The expression $m(A times B) = mA cdot mB$ is only valid if both $A,B$ are measurable. However, in a complete measure space any subset of a set of measure zero has measure zero.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:41












  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat: So you agree that ${0}times mathcal Nin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ (since it has measure $0$ it is measurable, no ?)
    $endgroup$
    – NewMath
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:43












  • $begingroup$
    No. If the $sigma$-field containing $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ is complete then ${0} times mathcal N$ will be in the $sigma$-field.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 '18 at 21:45








1




1




$begingroup$
The detail here is that the Vitali set $mathcal{N}$ is not in the sigma algebra $mathcal{M}$ that you are considering for which $(star)$ holds, precisely because it is not measurable.
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
Dec 3 '18 at 21:32




$begingroup$
The detail here is that the Vitali set $mathcal{N}$ is not in the sigma algebra $mathcal{M}$ that you are considering for which $(star)$ holds, precisely because it is not measurable.
$endgroup$
– Guido A.
Dec 3 '18 at 21:32












$begingroup$
$mathcal{N}notinmathcal{M}$
$endgroup$
– Ben W
Dec 3 '18 at 21:34




$begingroup$
$mathcal{N}notinmathcal{M}$
$endgroup$
– Ben W
Dec 3 '18 at 21:34




1




1




$begingroup$
The expression $m(A times B) = mA cdot mB$ is only valid if both $A,B$ are measurable. However, in a complete measure space any subset of a set of measure zero has measure zero.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Dec 3 '18 at 21:41






$begingroup$
The expression $m(A times B) = mA cdot mB$ is only valid if both $A,B$ are measurable. However, in a complete measure space any subset of a set of measure zero has measure zero.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Dec 3 '18 at 21:41














$begingroup$
@copper.hat: So you agree that ${0}times mathcal Nin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ (since it has measure $0$ it is measurable, no ?)
$endgroup$
– NewMath
Dec 3 '18 at 21:43






$begingroup$
@copper.hat: So you agree that ${0}times mathcal Nin mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ (since it has measure $0$ it is measurable, no ?)
$endgroup$
– NewMath
Dec 3 '18 at 21:43














$begingroup$
No. If the $sigma$-field containing $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ is complete then ${0} times mathcal N$ will be in the $sigma$-field.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Dec 3 '18 at 21:45




$begingroup$
No. If the $sigma$-field containing $mathcal Mtimes mathcal M$ is complete then ${0} times mathcal N$ will be in the $sigma$-field.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Dec 3 '18 at 21:45










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