$limlimits_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$?











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$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Solution



begin{align}lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}&=\&=lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}\
&= lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\
&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}\&=0 end{align}



But the answer is $dfrac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.










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  • 7




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    Nov 21 at 17:33










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:37












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:38












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:44






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 21 at 19:36















up vote
6
down vote

favorite
2












$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Solution



begin{align}lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}&=\&=lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}\
&= lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\
&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}\&=0 end{align}



But the answer is $dfrac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 7




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    Nov 21 at 17:33










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:37












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:38












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:44






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 21 at 19:36













up vote
6
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
6
down vote

favorite
2






2





$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Solution



begin{align}lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}&=\&=lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}\
&= lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\
&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}\&=0 end{align}



But the answer is $dfrac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.










share|cite|improve this question















$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}$$



Solution



begin{align}lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}&=\&=lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}\
&= lim_{xto 0}frac{tan x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x}lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2}\
&= lim_{xto 0} frac{1}{x^2} -frac{1}{x^2}\&=0 end{align}



But the answer is $dfrac{1}{2}$ by L'Hopital's Rule.







calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital






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edited Nov 24 at 11:41









amWhy

191k27223438




191k27223438










asked Nov 21 at 17:31









Raghav

437




437








  • 7




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    Nov 21 at 17:33










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:37












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:38












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:44






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 21 at 19:36














  • 7




    $infty -infty = ?$
    – Math Lover
    Nov 21 at 17:33










  • edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:37












  • The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:38












  • But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:44






  • 4




    Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
    – David G. Stork
    Nov 21 at 19:36








7




7




$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
Nov 21 at 17:33




$infty -infty = ?$
– Math Lover
Nov 21 at 17:33












edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
Nov 21 at 17:37






edited it, $lim_{xto 0} space 0 = 0$
– Raghav
Nov 21 at 17:37














The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
Nov 21 at 17:38






The same mistake applies regardless. You can’t break down a limit like that if the any of the individual limits are undefined/don’t exist.
– KM101
Nov 21 at 17:38














But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
Nov 21 at 17:44




But if we have $ lim_{xto 1} frac{x}{x-1} - frac{1}{x-1}$, It will be indeterminate form if we put X=1 in it but we get 1 by adding them.
– Raghav
Nov 21 at 17:44




4




4




Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
Nov 21 at 19:36




Please re-write your title to be informative. Someone else with the exact same problem would never find this solution based on its title.
– David G. Stork
Nov 21 at 19:36










5 Answers
5






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up vote
10
down vote



accepted










Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:39






  • 1




    You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:40












  • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:46










  • Exactly! (No problem.)
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:47










  • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
    – Paul Sinclair
    Nov 22 at 2:58


















up vote
27
down vote













This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



$$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



The theorem is
IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



begin{align}
frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
&= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
&= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
&= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
end{align}



which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






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  • 1




    @Steven where did I do $infty - infty$
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 13:05






  • 1




    Your way is correct.
    – KM101
    Nov 22 at 13:51






  • 1




    @AkashRoy Yes what you did is correct. I was looking at someone elses answer by mistake.
    – steven gregory
    Nov 22 at 14:14








  • 1




    I didn't know we needed to go to Le Hospital to solve limits :)
    – Abraham Zhang
    Nov 22 at 22:36






  • 1




    @stevengregory Check your spelling of "L'Hôpital" and then re-read my comment.
    – Abraham Zhang
    Nov 23 at 1:07


















up vote
12
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I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






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  • 3




    This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
    – MPW
    Nov 21 at 18:30










  • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
    – Acccumulation
    Nov 21 at 19:57










  • Is my answer okay?
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 8:00


















up vote
3
down vote













Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



We have



$$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



$$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



Therefore expression turns to,



$$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






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  • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 5:33












  • Good solution, however I would use truncation (with big-$O$) rather than those dots. And then you don't even need the $x^5$ terms, so you can truncate at $O(x^5)$.
    – Jean-Claude Arbaut
    Nov 22 at 12:51










  • Ok sir Jean Claude Arbaut . Thanks for your words.
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 13:03










  • That's a nice solution.
    – Raghav
    Nov 22 at 16:24










  • Thanks @Raghav bro.
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 16:39


















up vote
1
down vote













Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






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    5 Answers
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    5 Answers
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    up vote
    10
    down vote



    accepted










    Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



    Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:39






    • 1




      You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:40












    • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:46










    • Exactly! (No problem.)
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:47










    • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
      – Paul Sinclair
      Nov 22 at 2:58















    up vote
    10
    down vote



    accepted










    Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



    Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:39






    • 1




      You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:40












    • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:46










    • Exactly! (No problem.)
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:47










    • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
      – Paul Sinclair
      Nov 22 at 2:58













    up vote
    10
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    10
    down vote



    accepted






    Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



    Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Your problem arises from the fact that you used $color{red}{lim_limits{x to 0} frac{1}{x^2}}$, which does not have any finite defined value. In the end, you reach an indeterminate form $color{red}{infty-infty}$...



    Only split an initial limit into a product if the individual limits are defined.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Nov 21 at 17:37









    KM101

    2,437416




    2,437416












    • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:39






    • 1




      You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:40












    • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:46










    • Exactly! (No problem.)
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:47










    • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
      – Paul Sinclair
      Nov 22 at 2:58


















    • Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:39






    • 1




      You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:40












    • Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
      – Raghav
      Nov 21 at 17:46










    • Exactly! (No problem.)
      – KM101
      Nov 21 at 17:47










    • @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
      – Paul Sinclair
      Nov 22 at 2:58
















    Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:39




    Can't I obtain 0 by subtracting $frac{1}{x^2}$ by $frac{1}{x^2}$?
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:39




    1




    1




    You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:40






    You can’t break down a limit into a product if the individual limits aren’t defined. That’s where your error arose.
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:40














    Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:46




    Ohh, ok. So the the functions need to exist at the limit to be able to break down. Thank you very much man!
    – Raghav
    Nov 21 at 17:46












    Exactly! (No problem.)
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:47




    Exactly! (No problem.)
    – KM101
    Nov 21 at 17:47












    @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
    – Paul Sinclair
    Nov 22 at 2:58




    @Raghav - The function does not need to exist, but the limit does. If two of the three limits $lim f, lim g, lim (f + g)$ are known to exist (as a finite number), then it is guaranteed that the third also exists and the relationshil $$lim f + lim g = lim (f+g)$$ holds. But when only one of the limits is known to exist, there is no reason that the formula has to be true.
    – Paul Sinclair
    Nov 22 at 2:58










    up vote
    27
    down vote













    This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



    $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



    The theorem is
    IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
    and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
    THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



    But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



    This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



    begin{align}
    frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
    &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
    end{align}



    which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 1




      @Steven where did I do $infty - infty$
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:05






    • 1




      Your way is correct.
      – KM101
      Nov 22 at 13:51






    • 1




      @AkashRoy Yes what you did is correct. I was looking at someone elses answer by mistake.
      – steven gregory
      Nov 22 at 14:14








    • 1




      I didn't know we needed to go to Le Hospital to solve limits :)
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 22 at 22:36






    • 1




      @stevengregory Check your spelling of "L'Hôpital" and then re-read my comment.
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 23 at 1:07















    up vote
    27
    down vote













    This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



    $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



    The theorem is
    IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
    and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
    THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



    But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



    This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



    begin{align}
    frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
    &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
    end{align}



    which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 1




      @Steven where did I do $infty - infty$
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:05






    • 1




      Your way is correct.
      – KM101
      Nov 22 at 13:51






    • 1




      @AkashRoy Yes what you did is correct. I was looking at someone elses answer by mistake.
      – steven gregory
      Nov 22 at 14:14








    • 1




      I didn't know we needed to go to Le Hospital to solve limits :)
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 22 at 22:36






    • 1




      @stevengregory Check your spelling of "L'Hôpital" and then re-read my comment.
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 23 at 1:07













    up vote
    27
    down vote










    up vote
    27
    down vote









    This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



    $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



    The theorem is
    IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
    and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
    THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



    But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



    This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



    begin{align}
    frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
    &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
    end{align}



    which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    This is just another way of saying what the others told you.



    $$lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    ne lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} - lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3}$$



    The theorem is
    IF $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}f(x) = L$
    and $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}g(x)=M$, where $M, N in mathbb R$,
    THEN $displaystyle lim_{xto 0}(f(x)-g(x))=L-M$



    But, since $displaystyle lim_{xto 0} frac{tan x}{x^3} = lim_{xto 0} frac{sin x}{x^3} = infty$, then the theorem does not apply.



    This limit can be evaluated without resorting to L'Hospital.



    begin{align}
    frac{tan x - sin x}{x^3}
    &= frac{frac{sin x}{cos x} - sin x}{x^3} \
    &= frac{sin x - sin x cos x}{x^3 cos x} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x} cdot frac{1 - cos x}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac{2sin^2(frac 12x)}{x^2} \
    &= frac{1}{cos x} cdotfrac{sin x}{x}
    cdot frac 12 cdot left(frac{sin frac x2}{frac x2}right)^2 \
    end{align}



    which approaches $dfrac 12$ as $x$ approaches $0$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 21 at 18:19

























    answered Nov 21 at 17:57









    steven gregory

    17.6k22257




    17.6k22257








    • 1




      @Steven where did I do $infty - infty$
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:05






    • 1




      Your way is correct.
      – KM101
      Nov 22 at 13:51






    • 1




      @AkashRoy Yes what you did is correct. I was looking at someone elses answer by mistake.
      – steven gregory
      Nov 22 at 14:14








    • 1




      I didn't know we needed to go to Le Hospital to solve limits :)
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 22 at 22:36






    • 1




      @stevengregory Check your spelling of "L'Hôpital" and then re-read my comment.
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 23 at 1:07














    • 1




      @Steven where did I do $infty - infty$
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:05






    • 1




      Your way is correct.
      – KM101
      Nov 22 at 13:51






    • 1




      @AkashRoy Yes what you did is correct. I was looking at someone elses answer by mistake.
      – steven gregory
      Nov 22 at 14:14








    • 1




      I didn't know we needed to go to Le Hospital to solve limits :)
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 22 at 22:36






    • 1




      @stevengregory Check your spelling of "L'Hôpital" and then re-read my comment.
      – Abraham Zhang
      Nov 23 at 1:07








    1




    1




    @Steven where did I do $infty - infty$
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 13:05




    @Steven where did I do $infty - infty$
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 13:05




    1




    1




    Your way is correct.
    – KM101
    Nov 22 at 13:51




    Your way is correct.
    – KM101
    Nov 22 at 13:51




    1




    1




    @AkashRoy Yes what you did is correct. I was looking at someone elses answer by mistake.
    – steven gregory
    Nov 22 at 14:14






    @AkashRoy Yes what you did is correct. I was looking at someone elses answer by mistake.
    – steven gregory
    Nov 22 at 14:14






    1




    1




    I didn't know we needed to go to Le Hospital to solve limits :)
    – Abraham Zhang
    Nov 22 at 22:36




    I didn't know we needed to go to Le Hospital to solve limits :)
    – Abraham Zhang
    Nov 22 at 22:36




    1




    1




    @stevengregory Check your spelling of "L'Hôpital" and then re-read my comment.
    – Abraham Zhang
    Nov 23 at 1:07




    @stevengregory Check your spelling of "L'Hôpital" and then re-read my comment.
    – Abraham Zhang
    Nov 23 at 1:07










    up vote
    12
    down vote













    I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer










    New contributor




    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.














    • 3




      This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
      – MPW
      Nov 21 at 18:30










    • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
      – Acccumulation
      Nov 21 at 19:57










    • Is my answer okay?
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 8:00















    up vote
    12
    down vote













    I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer










    New contributor




    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.














    • 3




      This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
      – MPW
      Nov 21 at 18:30










    • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
      – Acccumulation
      Nov 21 at 19:57










    • Is my answer okay?
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 8:00













    up vote
    12
    down vote










    up vote
    12
    down vote









    I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer










    New contributor




    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.









    I don't know is there later mistakes or not, but I think there's a mistake at first equation. $ limlimits_{x to 0}big( f(x) - g(x)big)$ is not always equal to $ limlimits_{x to 0} f(x) - limlimits_{x to 0} g(x)$.







    share|cite|improve this answer










    New contributor




    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.









    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 21 at 18:26









    MPW

    29.6k11856




    29.6k11856






    New contributor




    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.









    answered Nov 21 at 17:55









    Reinstein

    1213




    1213




    New contributor




    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.





    New contributor





    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.






    Reinstein is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.








    • 3




      This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
      – MPW
      Nov 21 at 18:30










    • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
      – Acccumulation
      Nov 21 at 19:57










    • Is my answer okay?
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 8:00














    • 3




      This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
      – MPW
      Nov 21 at 18:30










    • There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
      – Acccumulation
      Nov 21 at 19:57










    • Is my answer okay?
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 8:00








    3




    3




    This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
    – MPW
    Nov 21 at 18:30




    This is the most concise correct answer. The obvious example is to pick any function $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ such that $limlimits_{xto 0}$ does not exist. Then $limlimits_{xto 0}big( f(x)-f(x)big)$ exists and equals $0$, but it is not equal to $limlimits_{xto 0}f(x) + limlimits_{xto 0}-f(x)$ since neither one of the latter two limits exists.
    – MPW
    Nov 21 at 18:30












    There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
    – Acccumulation
    Nov 21 at 19:57




    There has to be further problems with the work, as splitting works when there's a finite limit. If the OP had worked through the problem correctly, they should have found that the separate limits were indeterminate. The issue is not just splitting, but then recombining them later to cancel out the indeterminate.
    – Acccumulation
    Nov 21 at 19:57












    Is my answer okay?
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 8:00




    Is my answer okay?
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 8:00










    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



    We have



    $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



    $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



    Therefore expression turns to,



    $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



    Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 5:33












    • Good solution, however I would use truncation (with big-$O$) rather than those dots. And then you don't even need the $x^5$ terms, so you can truncate at $O(x^5)$.
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Nov 22 at 12:51










    • Ok sir Jean Claude Arbaut . Thanks for your words.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:03










    • That's a nice solution.
      – Raghav
      Nov 22 at 16:24










    • Thanks @Raghav bro.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 16:39















    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



    We have



    $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



    $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



    Therefore expression turns to,



    $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



    Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 5:33












    • Good solution, however I would use truncation (with big-$O$) rather than those dots. And then you don't even need the $x^5$ terms, so you can truncate at $O(x^5)$.
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Nov 22 at 12:51










    • Ok sir Jean Claude Arbaut . Thanks for your words.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:03










    • That's a nice solution.
      – Raghav
      Nov 22 at 16:24










    • Thanks @Raghav bro.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 16:39













    up vote
    3
    down vote










    up vote
    3
    down vote









    Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



    We have



    $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



    $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



    Therefore expression turns to,



    $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



    Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Another way of evaluation can be the use of Taylor Maclurin Expansion of $tan x$ and $sin x$.



    We have



    $$lim_{x to 0} tan x= frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . .$$



    $$lim_{x to 0} sin x= frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .$$



    Therefore expression turns to,



    $$lim_{x to 0} frac{frac{x}{1} +frac{x^{3}}{3} +frac{2x^{5}}{15} + . . . - (frac{x}{1} - frac{x^{3}}{6} +frac{x^{5}}{120} + . . .)}{x^{3}}$$



    Cancel the $x$ and then enforce the limit after dividing the numerator by $x^{3}$ . The expression simplifies to the calculation of sum of $frac{1}{3}$ and $frac{1}{6}$ which is $color{red} {frac{1}{2}}$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 22 at 5:37

























    answered Nov 22 at 5:29









    Akash Roy

    543118




    543118












    • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 5:33












    • Good solution, however I would use truncation (with big-$O$) rather than those dots. And then you don't even need the $x^5$ terms, so you can truncate at $O(x^5)$.
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Nov 22 at 12:51










    • Ok sir Jean Claude Arbaut . Thanks for your words.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:03










    • That's a nice solution.
      – Raghav
      Nov 22 at 16:24










    • Thanks @Raghav bro.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 16:39


















    • Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 5:33












    • Good solution, however I would use truncation (with big-$O$) rather than those dots. And then you don't even need the $x^5$ terms, so you can truncate at $O(x^5)$.
      – Jean-Claude Arbaut
      Nov 22 at 12:51










    • Ok sir Jean Claude Arbaut . Thanks for your words.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 13:03










    • That's a nice solution.
      – Raghav
      Nov 22 at 16:24










    • Thanks @Raghav bro.
      – Akash Roy
      Nov 22 at 16:39
















    Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 5:33






    Cancel the x/1 term first and then divide the expression by $x^{3}$ then enforce the limit which is x tends to 0 .
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 5:33














    Good solution, however I would use truncation (with big-$O$) rather than those dots. And then you don't even need the $x^5$ terms, so you can truncate at $O(x^5)$.
    – Jean-Claude Arbaut
    Nov 22 at 12:51




    Good solution, however I would use truncation (with big-$O$) rather than those dots. And then you don't even need the $x^5$ terms, so you can truncate at $O(x^5)$.
    – Jean-Claude Arbaut
    Nov 22 at 12:51












    Ok sir Jean Claude Arbaut . Thanks for your words.
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 13:03




    Ok sir Jean Claude Arbaut . Thanks for your words.
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 13:03












    That's a nice solution.
    – Raghav
    Nov 22 at 16:24




    That's a nice solution.
    – Raghav
    Nov 22 at 16:24












    Thanks @Raghav bro.
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 16:39




    Thanks @Raghav bro.
    – Akash Roy
    Nov 22 at 16:39










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



    To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



      To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



        To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Don't try to take the limit of each seperately & then take the difference - you just get the difference between two infinities! Express $sin$ & $tan$ as Taylor series - each has first term in $theta^1$ with coefficient 1, so in the difference it drops out. If you plot $sintheta-tantheta$ it looks like a cubic at the origin. Then if you divide that series by $theta^3$, & you get a series with an initial term in $theta^0$, ie a constant term. (This is shown in plots: if you plot that curve just described, ÷by $theta^3$, it begins somewhere along the y -axis instead of at the origin.) This is then all that is left as $thetarightarrow 0$. That's equivalent to tracing the plot I have just described in parenthesis to its point of intersection with the y -axis.



        To actually get the answer immediately you just subtract the coefficient for $theta^3$ in the series for $sintheta$ from that in that for $tantheta$, & you get 1/3 - -1/6 = 1/2.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 22 at 4:39

























        answered Nov 22 at 4:26









        AmbretteOrrisey

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