Universal Quantified Statement being equivalent when variables are swapped












0












$begingroup$


I was given this statement and asked to express this with universal quantifiers.



Likes(x,y) is a Binary Relation that means that person x likes person y.



The statement given was:



"Everybody is liked by somebody*". Easy Enough, or so I thought? I put:



∀x∃y, (Likes(y,x)). Apparently this is wrong and the correct solution (that a TA displayed as the answer) is ∀y∃x (Likes(x,y)).



For clarity my question is generally :



is ∀x∃y, (P(y,x)) ≡ ∀y∃x, (P(x,y)) ?



I understand the variables are swapped, but i believe that it is logically equivalent, as i just made the "everbody" labled as x and the "somebody" labeled as "y".



Thank you!










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Those statements are logically equivalent, but surely the correct answer to the original problem is $forall xexists y text{Likes}(x,y)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:39












  • $begingroup$
    Ah yes. My bad. I meant the statement to be the following: "Everybody is liked by somebody"
    $endgroup$
    – Stephen Isaac
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:42


















0












$begingroup$


I was given this statement and asked to express this with universal quantifiers.



Likes(x,y) is a Binary Relation that means that person x likes person y.



The statement given was:



"Everybody is liked by somebody*". Easy Enough, or so I thought? I put:



∀x∃y, (Likes(y,x)). Apparently this is wrong and the correct solution (that a TA displayed as the answer) is ∀y∃x (Likes(x,y)).



For clarity my question is generally :



is ∀x∃y, (P(y,x)) ≡ ∀y∃x, (P(x,y)) ?



I understand the variables are swapped, but i believe that it is logically equivalent, as i just made the "everbody" labled as x and the "somebody" labeled as "y".



Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Those statements are logically equivalent, but surely the correct answer to the original problem is $forall xexists y text{Likes}(x,y)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:39












  • $begingroup$
    Ah yes. My bad. I meant the statement to be the following: "Everybody is liked by somebody"
    $endgroup$
    – Stephen Isaac
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:42
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


I was given this statement and asked to express this with universal quantifiers.



Likes(x,y) is a Binary Relation that means that person x likes person y.



The statement given was:



"Everybody is liked by somebody*". Easy Enough, or so I thought? I put:



∀x∃y, (Likes(y,x)). Apparently this is wrong and the correct solution (that a TA displayed as the answer) is ∀y∃x (Likes(x,y)).



For clarity my question is generally :



is ∀x∃y, (P(y,x)) ≡ ∀y∃x, (P(x,y)) ?



I understand the variables are swapped, but i believe that it is logically equivalent, as i just made the "everbody" labled as x and the "somebody" labeled as "y".



Thank you!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I was given this statement and asked to express this with universal quantifiers.



Likes(x,y) is a Binary Relation that means that person x likes person y.



The statement given was:



"Everybody is liked by somebody*". Easy Enough, or so I thought? I put:



∀x∃y, (Likes(y,x)). Apparently this is wrong and the correct solution (that a TA displayed as the answer) is ∀y∃x (Likes(x,y)).



For clarity my question is generally :



is ∀x∃y, (P(y,x)) ≡ ∀y∃x, (P(x,y)) ?



I understand the variables are swapped, but i believe that it is logically equivalent, as i just made the "everbody" labled as x and the "somebody" labeled as "y".



Thank you!







discrete-mathematics logic quantifiers logic-translation






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edited Dec 11 '18 at 20:48









Bram28

63.9k44793




63.9k44793










asked Dec 11 '18 at 5:33









Stephen IsaacStephen Isaac

11




11












  • $begingroup$
    Those statements are logically equivalent, but surely the correct answer to the original problem is $forall xexists y text{Likes}(x,y)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:39












  • $begingroup$
    Ah yes. My bad. I meant the statement to be the following: "Everybody is liked by somebody"
    $endgroup$
    – Stephen Isaac
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:42




















  • $begingroup$
    Those statements are logically equivalent, but surely the correct answer to the original problem is $forall xexists y text{Likes}(x,y)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:39












  • $begingroup$
    Ah yes. My bad. I meant the statement to be the following: "Everybody is liked by somebody"
    $endgroup$
    – Stephen Isaac
    Dec 11 '18 at 5:42


















$begingroup$
Those statements are logically equivalent, but surely the correct answer to the original problem is $forall xexists y text{Likes}(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 11 '18 at 5:39






$begingroup$
Those statements are logically equivalent, but surely the correct answer to the original problem is $forall xexists y text{Likes}(x,y)$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 11 '18 at 5:39














$begingroup$
Ah yes. My bad. I meant the statement to be the following: "Everybody is liked by somebody"
$endgroup$
– Stephen Isaac
Dec 11 '18 at 5:42






$begingroup$
Ah yes. My bad. I meant the statement to be the following: "Everybody is liked by somebody"
$endgroup$
– Stephen Isaac
Dec 11 '18 at 5:42












1 Answer
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oldest

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$begingroup$

Yes, they are equivalent.



To actually formally show this, use the following two equivalences:



$$forall x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow forall y varphi(y)$$



$$exists x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow exists y varphi(y)$$



where $varphi$ is any formula, and where $varphi(x)$ is the same as $varphi(y)$, but with all free variables $x$ and $y$ swapped.



With these, we can do:



$$forall x exists y P(y,x) Leftrightarrow forall z exists y P(y,z) Leftrightarrow forall z exists x P(x,z) Leftrightarrow forall y exists x P(x,y)$$






share|cite|improve this answer









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    $begingroup$

    Yes, they are equivalent.



    To actually formally show this, use the following two equivalences:



    $$forall x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow forall y varphi(y)$$



    $$exists x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow exists y varphi(y)$$



    where $varphi$ is any formula, and where $varphi(x)$ is the same as $varphi(y)$, but with all free variables $x$ and $y$ swapped.



    With these, we can do:



    $$forall x exists y P(y,x) Leftrightarrow forall z exists y P(y,z) Leftrightarrow forall z exists x P(x,z) Leftrightarrow forall y exists x P(x,y)$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Yes, they are equivalent.



      To actually formally show this, use the following two equivalences:



      $$forall x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow forall y varphi(y)$$



      $$exists x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow exists y varphi(y)$$



      where $varphi$ is any formula, and where $varphi(x)$ is the same as $varphi(y)$, but with all free variables $x$ and $y$ swapped.



      With these, we can do:



      $$forall x exists y P(y,x) Leftrightarrow forall z exists y P(y,z) Leftrightarrow forall z exists x P(x,z) Leftrightarrow forall y exists x P(x,y)$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Yes, they are equivalent.



        To actually formally show this, use the following two equivalences:



        $$forall x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow forall y varphi(y)$$



        $$exists x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow exists y varphi(y)$$



        where $varphi$ is any formula, and where $varphi(x)$ is the same as $varphi(y)$, but with all free variables $x$ and $y$ swapped.



        With these, we can do:



        $$forall x exists y P(y,x) Leftrightarrow forall z exists y P(y,z) Leftrightarrow forall z exists x P(x,z) Leftrightarrow forall y exists x P(x,y)$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes, they are equivalent.



        To actually formally show this, use the following two equivalences:



        $$forall x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow forall y varphi(y)$$



        $$exists x varphi(x) Leftrightarrow exists y varphi(y)$$



        where $varphi$ is any formula, and where $varphi(x)$ is the same as $varphi(y)$, but with all free variables $x$ and $y$ swapped.



        With these, we can do:



        $$forall x exists y P(y,x) Leftrightarrow forall z exists y P(y,z) Leftrightarrow forall z exists x P(x,z) Leftrightarrow forall y exists x P(x,y)$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 11 '18 at 20:48









        Bram28Bram28

        63.9k44793




        63.9k44793






























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