(Proof right now?) Induction Inequality with sum












1














Have a short question to this equation.
I have to proof it per induction.
$$sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n^2 = ncdot n$$



...



so:



For induction proof can I use this? Is the following step correct?



$$sum_{k=1}^n a_k geq n$$
$$sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n$$



Thanks for your answers!



--EDIT--



I should proof that:
$$sum_{k=1}^{n+1} a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^{n+1} dfrac{1}{a_k} geq (n+1)^2 = n^2+2n+1$$



At the end of my proof there are following lines:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + left(dfrac{1}{a_{n+1}}cdot sum_{k=1}^n a_kright) +left((a_{n+1}) cdot sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + 1 $$



Now we can see that this part
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) +1 geq n^2+1$$



But what about the other 2 parts?



--- NEW STEPS ---



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



so now I substitute these:
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right)geq 2n$$



induction start:



...



Induction end:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) = left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) + left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) $$



$$ left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2n$$



$$ left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2$$



So the whole of this:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



and now the first equation is proofed.



Is this right, and finally the end? :)










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Shouldn't $a_n$ be positive?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • I presume you want each $a_i>0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • $sum a_k$ can be any positive number.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:15










  • Yeah it can be any positive number. Can i assume in this inequality that the one sum is bigger than n and the other sum is bigger than n?
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:18
















1














Have a short question to this equation.
I have to proof it per induction.
$$sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n^2 = ncdot n$$



...



so:



For induction proof can I use this? Is the following step correct?



$$sum_{k=1}^n a_k geq n$$
$$sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n$$



Thanks for your answers!



--EDIT--



I should proof that:
$$sum_{k=1}^{n+1} a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^{n+1} dfrac{1}{a_k} geq (n+1)^2 = n^2+2n+1$$



At the end of my proof there are following lines:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + left(dfrac{1}{a_{n+1}}cdot sum_{k=1}^n a_kright) +left((a_{n+1}) cdot sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + 1 $$



Now we can see that this part
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) +1 geq n^2+1$$



But what about the other 2 parts?



--- NEW STEPS ---



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



so now I substitute these:
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right)geq 2n$$



induction start:



...



Induction end:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) = left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) + left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) $$



$$ left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2n$$



$$ left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2$$



So the whole of this:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



and now the first equation is proofed.



Is this right, and finally the end? :)










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Shouldn't $a_n$ be positive?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • I presume you want each $a_i>0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • $sum a_k$ can be any positive number.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:15










  • Yeah it can be any positive number. Can i assume in this inequality that the one sum is bigger than n and the other sum is bigger than n?
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:18














1












1








1







Have a short question to this equation.
I have to proof it per induction.
$$sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n^2 = ncdot n$$



...



so:



For induction proof can I use this? Is the following step correct?



$$sum_{k=1}^n a_k geq n$$
$$sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n$$



Thanks for your answers!



--EDIT--



I should proof that:
$$sum_{k=1}^{n+1} a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^{n+1} dfrac{1}{a_k} geq (n+1)^2 = n^2+2n+1$$



At the end of my proof there are following lines:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + left(dfrac{1}{a_{n+1}}cdot sum_{k=1}^n a_kright) +left((a_{n+1}) cdot sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + 1 $$



Now we can see that this part
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) +1 geq n^2+1$$



But what about the other 2 parts?



--- NEW STEPS ---



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



so now I substitute these:
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right)geq 2n$$



induction start:



...



Induction end:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) = left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) + left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) $$



$$ left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2n$$



$$ left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2$$



So the whole of this:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



and now the first equation is proofed.



Is this right, and finally the end? :)










share|cite|improve this question















Have a short question to this equation.
I have to proof it per induction.
$$sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n^2 = ncdot n$$



...



so:



For induction proof can I use this? Is the following step correct?



$$sum_{k=1}^n a_k geq n$$
$$sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k} geq n$$



Thanks for your answers!



--EDIT--



I should proof that:
$$sum_{k=1}^{n+1} a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^{n+1} dfrac{1}{a_k} geq (n+1)^2 = n^2+2n+1$$



At the end of my proof there are following lines:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + left(dfrac{1}{a_{n+1}}cdot sum_{k=1}^n a_kright) +left((a_{n+1}) cdot sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) + 1 $$



Now we can see that this part
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n a_kcdotsum_{k=1}^n dfrac{1}{a_k}right) +1 geq n^2+1$$



But what about the other 2 parts?



--- NEW STEPS ---



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



so now I substitute these:
$$left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right)geq 2n$$



induction start:



...



Induction end:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) = left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) + left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) $$



$$ left(sum_{k=1}^n b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2n$$



$$ left(sum_{k=n+1}^{n+1} b_k+ dfrac{1}{b_k}right) geq 2$$



So the whole of this:



$$left(sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}+ dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}right)geq 2n$$



and now the first equation is proofed.



Is this right, and finally the end? :)







analysis induction






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 22 '18 at 23:16







John M

















asked Nov 22 '18 at 22:11









John MJohn M

154




154












  • Shouldn't $a_n$ be positive?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • I presume you want each $a_i>0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • $sum a_k$ can be any positive number.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:15










  • Yeah it can be any positive number. Can i assume in this inequality that the one sum is bigger than n and the other sum is bigger than n?
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:18


















  • Shouldn't $a_n$ be positive?
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • I presume you want each $a_i>0$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:14










  • $sum a_k$ can be any positive number.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:15










  • Yeah it can be any positive number. Can i assume in this inequality that the one sum is bigger than n and the other sum is bigger than n?
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:18
















Shouldn't $a_n$ be positive?
– Mostafa Ayaz
Nov 22 '18 at 22:14




Shouldn't $a_n$ be positive?
– Mostafa Ayaz
Nov 22 '18 at 22:14












I presume you want each $a_i>0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 '18 at 22:14




I presume you want each $a_i>0$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 '18 at 22:14












$sum a_k$ can be any positive number.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 '18 at 22:15




$sum a_k$ can be any positive number.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 22 '18 at 22:15












Yeah it can be any positive number. Can i assume in this inequality that the one sum is bigger than n and the other sum is bigger than n?
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 22:18




Yeah it can be any positive number. Can i assume in this inequality that the one sum is bigger than n and the other sum is bigger than n?
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 22:18










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0














Hint: In the inductive step, observe that $displaystyle sum_{k=1}^nleft(dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}+dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}right)ge 2n$ by AM-GM inequality, and together with the inductive step we're done.I want to point out that in using your answer $LHS =$ inductive part $+$ the two parts $+1ge n^2+2n+1=(n+1)^2=RHS$ ,completing the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for the answer, but i don't know how I should start with this..
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:45










  • Edited my solution, i think now it should be final, i guess so. Thanks for your help!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:22



















0














$a_n$ must be always positive. Here is a better way to attain to this:$$sum_{k=1}^{n}a_ksum_{l=1}^{n}{1over a_l}=sum_{k,l}{a_kover a_l}=sum_{k<l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k>l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k=l}{a_kover a_l}=n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)$$also we know that $${xover y}+{yover x}ge2$$therefore$$n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)ge n+sum_{k<l}2=n+2cdot {n^2-nover 2}=n^2$$which completes the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks for your help!!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:23










  • You're welcome. Hope it helps you!
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27











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2 Answers
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active

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2 Answers
2






active

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active

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active

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votes









0














Hint: In the inductive step, observe that $displaystyle sum_{k=1}^nleft(dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}+dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}right)ge 2n$ by AM-GM inequality, and together with the inductive step we're done.I want to point out that in using your answer $LHS =$ inductive part $+$ the two parts $+1ge n^2+2n+1=(n+1)^2=RHS$ ,completing the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for the answer, but i don't know how I should start with this..
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:45










  • Edited my solution, i think now it should be final, i guess so. Thanks for your help!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:22
















0














Hint: In the inductive step, observe that $displaystyle sum_{k=1}^nleft(dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}+dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}right)ge 2n$ by AM-GM inequality, and together with the inductive step we're done.I want to point out that in using your answer $LHS =$ inductive part $+$ the two parts $+1ge n^2+2n+1=(n+1)^2=RHS$ ,completing the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thanks for the answer, but i don't know how I should start with this..
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:45










  • Edited my solution, i think now it should be final, i guess so. Thanks for your help!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:22














0












0








0






Hint: In the inductive step, observe that $displaystyle sum_{k=1}^nleft(dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}+dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}right)ge 2n$ by AM-GM inequality, and together with the inductive step we're done.I want to point out that in using your answer $LHS =$ inductive part $+$ the two parts $+1ge n^2+2n+1=(n+1)^2=RHS$ ,completing the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer














Hint: In the inductive step, observe that $displaystyle sum_{k=1}^nleft(dfrac{a_{n+1}}{a_k}+dfrac{a_k}{a_{n+1}}right)ge 2n$ by AM-GM inequality, and together with the inductive step we're done.I want to point out that in using your answer $LHS =$ inductive part $+$ the two parts $+1ge n^2+2n+1=(n+1)^2=RHS$ ,completing the proof.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 22 '18 at 22:51

























answered Nov 22 '18 at 22:21









DeepSeaDeepSea

70.9k54487




70.9k54487












  • Thanks for the answer, but i don't know how I should start with this..
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:45










  • Edited my solution, i think now it should be final, i guess so. Thanks for your help!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:22


















  • Thanks for the answer, but i don't know how I should start with this..
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 22:45










  • Edited my solution, i think now it should be final, i guess so. Thanks for your help!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:22
















Thanks for the answer, but i don't know how I should start with this..
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 22:45




Thanks for the answer, but i don't know how I should start with this..
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 22:45












Edited my solution, i think now it should be final, i guess so. Thanks for your help!
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 23:22




Edited my solution, i think now it should be final, i guess so. Thanks for your help!
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 23:22











0














$a_n$ must be always positive. Here is a better way to attain to this:$$sum_{k=1}^{n}a_ksum_{l=1}^{n}{1over a_l}=sum_{k,l}{a_kover a_l}=sum_{k<l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k>l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k=l}{a_kover a_l}=n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)$$also we know that $${xover y}+{yover x}ge2$$therefore$$n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)ge n+sum_{k<l}2=n+2cdot {n^2-nover 2}=n^2$$which completes the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks for your help!!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:23










  • You're welcome. Hope it helps you!
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27
















0














$a_n$ must be always positive. Here is a better way to attain to this:$$sum_{k=1}^{n}a_ksum_{l=1}^{n}{1over a_l}=sum_{k,l}{a_kover a_l}=sum_{k<l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k>l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k=l}{a_kover a_l}=n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)$$also we know that $${xover y}+{yover x}ge2$$therefore$$n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)ge n+sum_{k<l}2=n+2cdot {n^2-nover 2}=n^2$$which completes the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks for your help!!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:23










  • You're welcome. Hope it helps you!
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27














0












0








0






$a_n$ must be always positive. Here is a better way to attain to this:$$sum_{k=1}^{n}a_ksum_{l=1}^{n}{1over a_l}=sum_{k,l}{a_kover a_l}=sum_{k<l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k>l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k=l}{a_kover a_l}=n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)$$also we know that $${xover y}+{yover x}ge2$$therefore$$n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)ge n+sum_{k<l}2=n+2cdot {n^2-nover 2}=n^2$$which completes the proof.






share|cite|improve this answer












$a_n$ must be always positive. Here is a better way to attain to this:$$sum_{k=1}^{n}a_ksum_{l=1}^{n}{1over a_l}=sum_{k,l}{a_kover a_l}=sum_{k<l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k>l}{a_kover a_l}+sum_{k=l}{a_kover a_l}=n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)$$also we know that $${xover y}+{yover x}ge2$$therefore$$n+sum_{k<l}left({a_kover a_l}+{a_lover a_k} right)ge n+sum_{k<l}2=n+2cdot {n^2-nover 2}=n^2$$which completes the proof.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 22 '18 at 22:19









Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

14.2k3937




14.2k3937












  • Thanks for your help!!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:23










  • You're welcome. Hope it helps you!
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27


















  • Thanks for your help!!
    – John M
    Nov 22 '18 at 23:23










  • You're welcome. Hope it helps you!
    – Mostafa Ayaz
    Nov 23 '18 at 7:27
















Thanks for your help!!
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 23:23




Thanks for your help!!
– John M
Nov 22 '18 at 23:23












You're welcome. Hope it helps you!
– Mostafa Ayaz
Nov 23 '18 at 7:27




You're welcome. Hope it helps you!
– Mostafa Ayaz
Nov 23 '18 at 7:27


















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