Injectivity of integral operators












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$begingroup$


Let $K:L^2[0,1]^{d_1}to L^2[0,1]^{d_2}$ be integral operator
$$(Kf)(y) = int f(x)k(x,y)d x.$$
If $d_1>d_2$ is it possible for $K$ to be injective?, e.g. let's take $d_1=2,d_2=1$.



More generally, does the injectivity of $K$ impose any restrictions on $d_1,d_2$.










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  • $begingroup$
    Is there any information on $k(x,y)$? For instance, in the trivial case when $k(x,y)$ does not depend on $y$ and vanishes for all $x in (0,0.5)$, then $Kf(y) =0 forall y$ for some non-zero function $f$, so the operator is not injective.
    $endgroup$
    – Yuxin Wang
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I don't have any conditions. I need an example of injective $K$ when $d_1>d_2$ (or at least in knowing whether this is possible). I'm not interested in counterexamples.
    $endgroup$
    – Lionville
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:45












  • $begingroup$
    Well, what are your thoughts on the question so far?
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Nov 29 '18 at 2:30
















0












$begingroup$


Let $K:L^2[0,1]^{d_1}to L^2[0,1]^{d_2}$ be integral operator
$$(Kf)(y) = int f(x)k(x,y)d x.$$
If $d_1>d_2$ is it possible for $K$ to be injective?, e.g. let's take $d_1=2,d_2=1$.



More generally, does the injectivity of $K$ impose any restrictions on $d_1,d_2$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Is there any information on $k(x,y)$? For instance, in the trivial case when $k(x,y)$ does not depend on $y$ and vanishes for all $x in (0,0.5)$, then $Kf(y) =0 forall y$ for some non-zero function $f$, so the operator is not injective.
    $endgroup$
    – Yuxin Wang
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I don't have any conditions. I need an example of injective $K$ when $d_1>d_2$ (or at least in knowing whether this is possible). I'm not interested in counterexamples.
    $endgroup$
    – Lionville
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:45












  • $begingroup$
    Well, what are your thoughts on the question so far?
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Nov 29 '18 at 2:30














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $K:L^2[0,1]^{d_1}to L^2[0,1]^{d_2}$ be integral operator
$$(Kf)(y) = int f(x)k(x,y)d x.$$
If $d_1>d_2$ is it possible for $K$ to be injective?, e.g. let's take $d_1=2,d_2=1$.



More generally, does the injectivity of $K$ impose any restrictions on $d_1,d_2$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $K:L^2[0,1]^{d_1}to L^2[0,1]^{d_2}$ be integral operator
$$(Kf)(y) = int f(x)k(x,y)d x.$$
If $d_1>d_2$ is it possible for $K$ to be injective?, e.g. let's take $d_1=2,d_2=1$.



More generally, does the injectivity of $K$ impose any restrictions on $d_1,d_2$.







functional-analysis functional-inequalities






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 29 '18 at 1:45







Lionville

















asked Nov 28 '18 at 17:06









LionvilleLionville

334112




334112












  • $begingroup$
    Is there any information on $k(x,y)$? For instance, in the trivial case when $k(x,y)$ does not depend on $y$ and vanishes for all $x in (0,0.5)$, then $Kf(y) =0 forall y$ for some non-zero function $f$, so the operator is not injective.
    $endgroup$
    – Yuxin Wang
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I don't have any conditions. I need an example of injective $K$ when $d_1>d_2$ (or at least in knowing whether this is possible). I'm not interested in counterexamples.
    $endgroup$
    – Lionville
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:45












  • $begingroup$
    Well, what are your thoughts on the question so far?
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Nov 29 '18 at 2:30


















  • $begingroup$
    Is there any information on $k(x,y)$? For instance, in the trivial case when $k(x,y)$ does not depend on $y$ and vanishes for all $x in (0,0.5)$, then $Kf(y) =0 forall y$ for some non-zero function $f$, so the operator is not injective.
    $endgroup$
    – Yuxin Wang
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:43










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. I don't have any conditions. I need an example of injective $K$ when $d_1>d_2$ (or at least in knowing whether this is possible). I'm not interested in counterexamples.
    $endgroup$
    – Lionville
    Nov 29 '18 at 1:45












  • $begingroup$
    Well, what are your thoughts on the question so far?
    $endgroup$
    – jgon
    Nov 29 '18 at 2:30
















$begingroup$
Is there any information on $k(x,y)$? For instance, in the trivial case when $k(x,y)$ does not depend on $y$ and vanishes for all $x in (0,0.5)$, then $Kf(y) =0 forall y$ for some non-zero function $f$, so the operator is not injective.
$endgroup$
– Yuxin Wang
Nov 29 '18 at 1:43




$begingroup$
Is there any information on $k(x,y)$? For instance, in the trivial case when $k(x,y)$ does not depend on $y$ and vanishes for all $x in (0,0.5)$, then $Kf(y) =0 forall y$ for some non-zero function $f$, so the operator is not injective.
$endgroup$
– Yuxin Wang
Nov 29 '18 at 1:43












$begingroup$
Thank you. I don't have any conditions. I need an example of injective $K$ when $d_1>d_2$ (or at least in knowing whether this is possible). I'm not interested in counterexamples.
$endgroup$
– Lionville
Nov 29 '18 at 1:45






$begingroup$
Thank you. I don't have any conditions. I need an example of injective $K$ when $d_1>d_2$ (or at least in knowing whether this is possible). I'm not interested in counterexamples.
$endgroup$
– Lionville
Nov 29 '18 at 1:45














$begingroup$
Well, what are your thoughts on the question so far?
$endgroup$
– jgon
Nov 29 '18 at 2:30




$begingroup$
Well, what are your thoughts on the question so far?
$endgroup$
– jgon
Nov 29 '18 at 2:30










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