The Laplace Transform(s) of a Certain Family of Generalized Hypergeometric Functions












1












$begingroup$


Using the standard notation for a generalized hypergeometric function, given a non-negative integer $p$, define:



$mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)={}_{p}F_{p}left(underbrace{frac{1}{2},...,frac{1}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};underbrace{frac{3}{2},...,frac{3}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};-x^{2}right)$



for all $x$ (in $mathbb{R}$, or in $mathbb{C}$). That is to say (as can be easily shown):



$mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)=3^{p}sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{left(-1right)^{n}}{n!}frac{x^{2n}}{left(2n+3right)^{p}}$



This function is integrable in the nicest possible ways (it is a schwartz function, rapidly decreasing, &c., &c....) and, it is analytic everywhere.



I would like to be able to find the laplace transforms ($mathcal{L}left{ mathcal{G}_{p}right} left(sright)
)$ of the $mathcal{G}_{p}$s for every $p$
. At a minimum, I want a closed-form expression for the value of the laplace transforms at $s=1$
; i.e., the value of the integral:



$int_{0}^{infty}mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)e^{-x}dx$



I cannot do this integration term-by-term, since that leads to a divergent series (and is not valid, due to an absence of uniform convergence of the integrand for $xinmathbb{R}geq0$).



Any ideas?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Using the standard notation for a generalized hypergeometric function, given a non-negative integer $p$, define:



    $mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)={}_{p}F_{p}left(underbrace{frac{1}{2},...,frac{1}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};underbrace{frac{3}{2},...,frac{3}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};-x^{2}right)$



    for all $x$ (in $mathbb{R}$, or in $mathbb{C}$). That is to say (as can be easily shown):



    $mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)=3^{p}sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{left(-1right)^{n}}{n!}frac{x^{2n}}{left(2n+3right)^{p}}$



    This function is integrable in the nicest possible ways (it is a schwartz function, rapidly decreasing, &c., &c....) and, it is analytic everywhere.



    I would like to be able to find the laplace transforms ($mathcal{L}left{ mathcal{G}_{p}right} left(sright)
    )$ of the $mathcal{G}_{p}$s for every $p$
    . At a minimum, I want a closed-form expression for the value of the laplace transforms at $s=1$
    ; i.e., the value of the integral:



    $int_{0}^{infty}mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)e^{-x}dx$



    I cannot do this integration term-by-term, since that leads to a divergent series (and is not valid, due to an absence of uniform convergence of the integrand for $xinmathbb{R}geq0$).



    Any ideas?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      Using the standard notation for a generalized hypergeometric function, given a non-negative integer $p$, define:



      $mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)={}_{p}F_{p}left(underbrace{frac{1}{2},...,frac{1}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};underbrace{frac{3}{2},...,frac{3}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};-x^{2}right)$



      for all $x$ (in $mathbb{R}$, or in $mathbb{C}$). That is to say (as can be easily shown):



      $mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)=3^{p}sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{left(-1right)^{n}}{n!}frac{x^{2n}}{left(2n+3right)^{p}}$



      This function is integrable in the nicest possible ways (it is a schwartz function, rapidly decreasing, &c., &c....) and, it is analytic everywhere.



      I would like to be able to find the laplace transforms ($mathcal{L}left{ mathcal{G}_{p}right} left(sright)
      )$ of the $mathcal{G}_{p}$s for every $p$
      . At a minimum, I want a closed-form expression for the value of the laplace transforms at $s=1$
      ; i.e., the value of the integral:



      $int_{0}^{infty}mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)e^{-x}dx$



      I cannot do this integration term-by-term, since that leads to a divergent series (and is not valid, due to an absence of uniform convergence of the integrand for $xinmathbb{R}geq0$).



      Any ideas?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Using the standard notation for a generalized hypergeometric function, given a non-negative integer $p$, define:



      $mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)={}_{p}F_{p}left(underbrace{frac{1}{2},...,frac{1}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};underbrace{frac{3}{2},...,frac{3}{2}}_{ptextrm{ times}};-x^{2}right)$



      for all $x$ (in $mathbb{R}$, or in $mathbb{C}$). That is to say (as can be easily shown):



      $mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)=3^{p}sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{left(-1right)^{n}}{n!}frac{x^{2n}}{left(2n+3right)^{p}}$



      This function is integrable in the nicest possible ways (it is a schwartz function, rapidly decreasing, &c., &c....) and, it is analytic everywhere.



      I would like to be able to find the laplace transforms ($mathcal{L}left{ mathcal{G}_{p}right} left(sright)
      )$ of the $mathcal{G}_{p}$s for every $p$
      . At a minimum, I want a closed-form expression for the value of the laplace transforms at $s=1$
      ; i.e., the value of the integral:



      $int_{0}^{infty}mathcal{G}_{p}left(xright)e^{-x}dx$



      I cannot do this integration term-by-term, since that leads to a divergent series (and is not valid, due to an absence of uniform convergence of the integrand for $xinmathbb{R}geq0$).



      Any ideas?







      laplace-transform hypergeometric-function






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      asked Mar 6 '17 at 1:43









      MCSMCS

      969313




      969313






















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          $begingroup$

          Following Wang, I would suggest



          $$mathcal{L}{mathcal{G}_{p}(x);s}= _{p+1}F_{q}left[begin{matrix}
          1, & a_{1}, & dots & ,a_{n} \
          & b_{1}, & dots & ,b_{q}
          end{matrix};1/sright]$$



          See equation (1.6)






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
            1






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            active

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            1












            $begingroup$

            Following Wang, I would suggest



            $$mathcal{L}{mathcal{G}_{p}(x);s}= _{p+1}F_{q}left[begin{matrix}
            1, & a_{1}, & dots & ,a_{n} \
            & b_{1}, & dots & ,b_{q}
            end{matrix};1/sright]$$



            See equation (1.6)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Following Wang, I would suggest



              $$mathcal{L}{mathcal{G}_{p}(x);s}= _{p+1}F_{q}left[begin{matrix}
              1, & a_{1}, & dots & ,a_{n} \
              & b_{1}, & dots & ,b_{q}
              end{matrix};1/sright]$$



              See equation (1.6)






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Following Wang, I would suggest



                $$mathcal{L}{mathcal{G}_{p}(x);s}= _{p+1}F_{q}left[begin{matrix}
                1, & a_{1}, & dots & ,a_{n} \
                & b_{1}, & dots & ,b_{q}
                end{matrix};1/sright]$$



                See equation (1.6)






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Following Wang, I would suggest



                $$mathcal{L}{mathcal{G}_{p}(x);s}= _{p+1}F_{q}left[begin{matrix}
                1, & a_{1}, & dots & ,a_{n} \
                & b_{1}, & dots & ,b_{q}
                end{matrix};1/sright]$$



                See equation (1.6)







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 27 '18 at 18:00









                Rafael Rafael

                465




                465






























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