Hint Prove $||b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^p|leq C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$












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I have looked at this inequality in several ways, but cannot find the correct path:



Show for $a,b in mathbb R$ and $C_{p} > 0$ with $p in ]1,infty[$
$||b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^p|leq C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$



My attempt:



In this first case



Looking at LHS: $|b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^pleq|b-a|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=|a-b|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=0$



and the RHS is: $C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$ and note $(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1}) > 0$, so we could easily find $C_{p}$ (e.g. $1$) so that LHS $leq$ RHS



In the second case, looking at LHS: $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^p$ and attempting to prove LHS $geq$ RHS, all I can say is $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^pgeq |a|^p+|a|^p-|b|^p-|b|^p=2(|a|^p-|b|^p)...$ but this does not lead anywhere, does it?



Any ideas?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I have looked at this inequality in several ways, but cannot find the correct path:



    Show for $a,b in mathbb R$ and $C_{p} > 0$ with $p in ]1,infty[$
    $||b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^p|leq C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$



    My attempt:



    In this first case



    Looking at LHS: $|b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^pleq|b-a|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=|a-b|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=0$



    and the RHS is: $C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$ and note $(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1}) > 0$, so we could easily find $C_{p}$ (e.g. $1$) so that LHS $leq$ RHS



    In the second case, looking at LHS: $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^p$ and attempting to prove LHS $geq$ RHS, all I can say is $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^pgeq |a|^p+|a|^p-|b|^p-|b|^p=2(|a|^p-|b|^p)...$ but this does not lead anywhere, does it?



    Any ideas?










    share|cite|improve this question









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      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I have looked at this inequality in several ways, but cannot find the correct path:



      Show for $a,b in mathbb R$ and $C_{p} > 0$ with $p in ]1,infty[$
      $||b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^p|leq C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$



      My attempt:



      In this first case



      Looking at LHS: $|b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^pleq|b-a|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=|a-b|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=0$



      and the RHS is: $C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$ and note $(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1}) > 0$, so we could easily find $C_{p}$ (e.g. $1$) so that LHS $leq$ RHS



      In the second case, looking at LHS: $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^p$ and attempting to prove LHS $geq$ RHS, all I can say is $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^pgeq |a|^p+|a|^p-|b|^p-|b|^p=2(|a|^p-|b|^p)...$ but this does not lead anywhere, does it?



      Any ideas?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have looked at this inequality in several ways, but cannot find the correct path:



      Show for $a,b in mathbb R$ and $C_{p} > 0$ with $p in ]1,infty[$
      $||b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^p|leq C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$



      My attempt:



      In this first case



      Looking at LHS: $|b|^p-|a|^p-|a-b|^pleq|b-a|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=|a-b|^{p}-|a-b|^{p}=0$



      and the RHS is: $C_{p}(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1})$ and note $(|a|^{p-1}|a-b|+|a||a-b|^{p-1}) > 0$, so we could easily find $C_{p}$ (e.g. $1$) so that LHS $leq$ RHS



      In the second case, looking at LHS: $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^p$ and attempting to prove LHS $geq$ RHS, all I can say is $|a|^p+|a-b|^p-|b|^pgeq |a|^p+|a|^p-|b|^p-|b|^p=2(|a|^p-|b|^p)...$ but this does not lead anywhere, does it?



      Any ideas?







      real-analysis measure-theory inequality






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      asked Dec 11 '18 at 12:47









      SABOYSABOY

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