Showing that $M + N$ is a closed subspace of the Hilbert $H$












2












$begingroup$


Exercise :




Let $M, N$ be closed subspaces of the Hilbert space $H$ while it is also assumed that $M bot N$. Show that the set :
$$M + N = {x+y : x in M, y in N}$$
is also a closed subspace of $H$.




Attempt - Thoughts :



First of all, since $M$ and $N$ are closed, this means that if $(x_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $X$ and $(y_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $N$, then :
$$lim x_n = x, quad x in M$$
$$lim y_n = y, quad y in N$$
Now, since it is $M bot N$, then it should also be $langle x, y rangle = 0$.



Now, defining the Hilbert space norm to be $|cdot | = sqrt{langle cdot, cdot rangle}$, it is :



$$|x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + 2langle x,yrangle + |y||^2$$



But since $x bot y$, then : $ |x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + |y|^2 Leftrightarrow |x+y| = sqrt{|x|^2 + |y|^2}$.



In terms of the definition of a closed set, I would need to prove that for $(x_n) in M$ and $(y_n) in N$, then $(x_n + y_n) in M + N$ and $lim (x_n + y_n) in M + N$.



I can't really see though how I could proceed to any conclusions (or if there's a simpler way etc), so I would really appreciate any hints or elaborations










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Exercise :




    Let $M, N$ be closed subspaces of the Hilbert space $H$ while it is also assumed that $M bot N$. Show that the set :
    $$M + N = {x+y : x in M, y in N}$$
    is also a closed subspace of $H$.




    Attempt - Thoughts :



    First of all, since $M$ and $N$ are closed, this means that if $(x_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $X$ and $(y_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $N$, then :
    $$lim x_n = x, quad x in M$$
    $$lim y_n = y, quad y in N$$
    Now, since it is $M bot N$, then it should also be $langle x, y rangle = 0$.



    Now, defining the Hilbert space norm to be $|cdot | = sqrt{langle cdot, cdot rangle}$, it is :



    $$|x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + 2langle x,yrangle + |y||^2$$



    But since $x bot y$, then : $ |x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + |y|^2 Leftrightarrow |x+y| = sqrt{|x|^2 + |y|^2}$.



    In terms of the definition of a closed set, I would need to prove that for $(x_n) in M$ and $(y_n) in N$, then $(x_n + y_n) in M + N$ and $lim (x_n + y_n) in M + N$.



    I can't really see though how I could proceed to any conclusions (or if there's a simpler way etc), so I would really appreciate any hints or elaborations










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Exercise :




      Let $M, N$ be closed subspaces of the Hilbert space $H$ while it is also assumed that $M bot N$. Show that the set :
      $$M + N = {x+y : x in M, y in N}$$
      is also a closed subspace of $H$.




      Attempt - Thoughts :



      First of all, since $M$ and $N$ are closed, this means that if $(x_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $X$ and $(y_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $N$, then :
      $$lim x_n = x, quad x in M$$
      $$lim y_n = y, quad y in N$$
      Now, since it is $M bot N$, then it should also be $langle x, y rangle = 0$.



      Now, defining the Hilbert space norm to be $|cdot | = sqrt{langle cdot, cdot rangle}$, it is :



      $$|x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + 2langle x,yrangle + |y||^2$$



      But since $x bot y$, then : $ |x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + |y|^2 Leftrightarrow |x+y| = sqrt{|x|^2 + |y|^2}$.



      In terms of the definition of a closed set, I would need to prove that for $(x_n) in M$ and $(y_n) in N$, then $(x_n + y_n) in M + N$ and $lim (x_n + y_n) in M + N$.



      I can't really see though how I could proceed to any conclusions (or if there's a simpler way etc), so I would really appreciate any hints or elaborations










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Exercise :




      Let $M, N$ be closed subspaces of the Hilbert space $H$ while it is also assumed that $M bot N$. Show that the set :
      $$M + N = {x+y : x in M, y in N}$$
      is also a closed subspace of $H$.




      Attempt - Thoughts :



      First of all, since $M$ and $N$ are closed, this means that if $(x_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $X$ and $(y_n)$ is a sequence of elements belonging in $N$, then :
      $$lim x_n = x, quad x in M$$
      $$lim y_n = y, quad y in N$$
      Now, since it is $M bot N$, then it should also be $langle x, y rangle = 0$.



      Now, defining the Hilbert space norm to be $|cdot | = sqrt{langle cdot, cdot rangle}$, it is :



      $$|x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + 2langle x,yrangle + |y||^2$$



      But since $x bot y$, then : $ |x+y|^2 = |x|^2 + |y|^2 Leftrightarrow |x+y| = sqrt{|x|^2 + |y|^2}$.



      In terms of the definition of a closed set, I would need to prove that for $(x_n) in M$ and $(y_n) in N$, then $(x_n + y_n) in M + N$ and $lim (x_n + y_n) in M + N$.



      I can't really see though how I could proceed to any conclusions (or if there's a simpler way etc), so I would really appreciate any hints or elaborations







      real-analysis functional-analysis hilbert-spaces normed-spaces inner-product-space






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      asked Dec 2 '18 at 11:20









      RebellosRebellos

      14.8k31248




      14.8k31248






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Suppose ${x_n} subset M$,${y_n} subset N$ and $x_n+y_nto z$. Then (by orthogonality) $|(x_n-x_m) -(y_n-y_m)|^{2}=|x_n-x_m|^{2}+|y_n-y_m|^{2} to 0$ so both ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy. If these sequences converge to $x$ and $y$ respectively the $x in M, yin N$ and $z=x+y in M+N$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Accurate ! I just used it as an answer to my post like 12 seconds before you posted it haha ! +1 anyway !
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50





















          2












          $begingroup$

          $M=(M^perp)^perp$ and $N=(N^perp)^perp$. Then $M+N=(M^perpcap N^perp)^perp$. As the perpendicular complement of a subspace is always closed, then
          $M+N$ is closed.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Meh, so simple and easy taking advantage of that. Thanks for the elegant elaboration. I guess it's a fact of experience finding always alternative short paths for proofs rather that working around definitions !
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:33










          • $begingroup$
            Just a question though, why would it be : $M + N = (M^bot cap N^bot)bot $ in terms of a rigorous explanation, so I can fully understand it mathematically ?
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:39












          • $begingroup$
            I think this answer uses unnecessary theorems. The result can be proved from definitions.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50



















          2












          $begingroup$

          You can as well run through the definitions.
          Assume ${x_n+y_n}_{n=1}^{infty}subseteq M+N$ a Cauchy sequence then using $Mperp N$ gives
          $$langle x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m),x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m)rangle=langle x_n-x_m,x_n-x_mrangle +langle y_n-y_m,y_n-y_mranglerightarrow 0$$
          as $n,mrightarrowinfty$ from which You can conclude that ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy sequences and thus have limits $xin M$ and $yin N$ respectively since $M$ and $N$ are closed.
          Since for the considered sequences one has $langle x_n-x,x_n-xranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrow infty$ and $langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrowinfty$, You can conclude
          $$langle x_n+y_n-(x+y),x_n+y_n-(x+y)rangle=langle x_n-x,x_n-xrangle +langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0$$
          as $nrightarrowinfty$ and thus $M+N$ is closed.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            True, just answered it myself below like 45 seconds ago! Thanks for the cross-validation! +1 anyway
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50





















          1












          $begingroup$

          Worked around the following answer :



          Let $(z_n)$ be a convergent sequence in $M + N$. Then we can write $z_n = underbrace{x_n}_{in M} +underbrace{y_n}_{in N}$.



          But $M perp N $ we have $| z_n |^2 = |x_n |^2 +|y_n|^2$ by the Pythagoreian Theorem, since $langle x_n,y_nrangle = 0$ .



          Now, the sequence $(z_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, which means that :
          $$ |x_n -x_m|^2 +|y_n -y_m|^2 = | z_n -z_m|^2 rightarrow 0$$



          since $x_n to x$ and $ y_nto y$ for some $xin M $ , $y in N $ since they are both closed spaces . It then follows that $$lim z_n = z = x+y in N + M $$
          thus the space $N+M$ is a closed subspace of $H$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes








            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            2












            $begingroup$

            Suppose ${x_n} subset M$,${y_n} subset N$ and $x_n+y_nto z$. Then (by orthogonality) $|(x_n-x_m) -(y_n-y_m)|^{2}=|x_n-x_m|^{2}+|y_n-y_m|^{2} to 0$ so both ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy. If these sequences converge to $x$ and $y$ respectively the $x in M, yin N$ and $z=x+y in M+N$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Accurate ! I just used it as an answer to my post like 12 seconds before you posted it haha ! +1 anyway !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50


















            2












            $begingroup$

            Suppose ${x_n} subset M$,${y_n} subset N$ and $x_n+y_nto z$. Then (by orthogonality) $|(x_n-x_m) -(y_n-y_m)|^{2}=|x_n-x_m|^{2}+|y_n-y_m|^{2} to 0$ so both ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy. If these sequences converge to $x$ and $y$ respectively the $x in M, yin N$ and $z=x+y in M+N$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Accurate ! I just used it as an answer to my post like 12 seconds before you posted it haha ! +1 anyway !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50
















            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            Suppose ${x_n} subset M$,${y_n} subset N$ and $x_n+y_nto z$. Then (by orthogonality) $|(x_n-x_m) -(y_n-y_m)|^{2}=|x_n-x_m|^{2}+|y_n-y_m|^{2} to 0$ so both ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy. If these sequences converge to $x$ and $y$ respectively the $x in M, yin N$ and $z=x+y in M+N$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Suppose ${x_n} subset M$,${y_n} subset N$ and $x_n+y_nto z$. Then (by orthogonality) $|(x_n-x_m) -(y_n-y_m)|^{2}=|x_n-x_m|^{2}+|y_n-y_m|^{2} to 0$ so both ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy. If these sequences converge to $x$ and $y$ respectively the $x in M, yin N$ and $z=x+y in M+N$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 2 '18 at 11:49









            Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

            60.6k42161




            60.6k42161












            • $begingroup$
              Accurate ! I just used it as an answer to my post like 12 seconds before you posted it haha ! +1 anyway !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50




















            • $begingroup$
              Accurate ! I just used it as an answer to my post like 12 seconds before you posted it haha ! +1 anyway !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50


















            $begingroup$
            Accurate ! I just used it as an answer to my post like 12 seconds before you posted it haha ! +1 anyway !
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50






            $begingroup$
            Accurate ! I just used it as an answer to my post like 12 seconds before you posted it haha ! +1 anyway !
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50













            2












            $begingroup$

            $M=(M^perp)^perp$ and $N=(N^perp)^perp$. Then $M+N=(M^perpcap N^perp)^perp$. As the perpendicular complement of a subspace is always closed, then
            $M+N$ is closed.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Meh, so simple and easy taking advantage of that. Thanks for the elegant elaboration. I guess it's a fact of experience finding always alternative short paths for proofs rather that working around definitions !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:33










            • $begingroup$
              Just a question though, why would it be : $M + N = (M^bot cap N^bot)bot $ in terms of a rigorous explanation, so I can fully understand it mathematically ?
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:39












            • $begingroup$
              I think this answer uses unnecessary theorems. The result can be proved from definitions.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50
















            2












            $begingroup$

            $M=(M^perp)^perp$ and $N=(N^perp)^perp$. Then $M+N=(M^perpcap N^perp)^perp$. As the perpendicular complement of a subspace is always closed, then
            $M+N$ is closed.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Meh, so simple and easy taking advantage of that. Thanks for the elegant elaboration. I guess it's a fact of experience finding always alternative short paths for proofs rather that working around definitions !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:33










            • $begingroup$
              Just a question though, why would it be : $M + N = (M^bot cap N^bot)bot $ in terms of a rigorous explanation, so I can fully understand it mathematically ?
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:39












            • $begingroup$
              I think this answer uses unnecessary theorems. The result can be proved from definitions.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50














            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            $M=(M^perp)^perp$ and $N=(N^perp)^perp$. Then $M+N=(M^perpcap N^perp)^perp$. As the perpendicular complement of a subspace is always closed, then
            $M+N$ is closed.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            $M=(M^perp)^perp$ and $N=(N^perp)^perp$. Then $M+N=(M^perpcap N^perp)^perp$. As the perpendicular complement of a subspace is always closed, then
            $M+N$ is closed.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 2 '18 at 11:30









            Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

            104k1160132




            104k1160132












            • $begingroup$
              Meh, so simple and easy taking advantage of that. Thanks for the elegant elaboration. I guess it's a fact of experience finding always alternative short paths for proofs rather that working around definitions !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:33










            • $begingroup$
              Just a question though, why would it be : $M + N = (M^bot cap N^bot)bot $ in terms of a rigorous explanation, so I can fully understand it mathematically ?
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:39












            • $begingroup$
              I think this answer uses unnecessary theorems. The result can be proved from definitions.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50


















            • $begingroup$
              Meh, so simple and easy taking advantage of that. Thanks for the elegant elaboration. I guess it's a fact of experience finding always alternative short paths for proofs rather that working around definitions !
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:33










            • $begingroup$
              Just a question though, why would it be : $M + N = (M^bot cap N^bot)bot $ in terms of a rigorous explanation, so I can fully understand it mathematically ?
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:39












            • $begingroup$
              I think this answer uses unnecessary theorems. The result can be proved from definitions.
              $endgroup$
              – Kavi Rama Murthy
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50
















            $begingroup$
            Meh, so simple and easy taking advantage of that. Thanks for the elegant elaboration. I guess it's a fact of experience finding always alternative short paths for proofs rather that working around definitions !
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:33




            $begingroup$
            Meh, so simple and easy taking advantage of that. Thanks for the elegant elaboration. I guess it's a fact of experience finding always alternative short paths for proofs rather that working around definitions !
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:33












            $begingroup$
            Just a question though, why would it be : $M + N = (M^bot cap N^bot)bot $ in terms of a rigorous explanation, so I can fully understand it mathematically ?
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:39






            $begingroup$
            Just a question though, why would it be : $M + N = (M^bot cap N^bot)bot $ in terms of a rigorous explanation, so I can fully understand it mathematically ?
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:39














            $begingroup$
            I think this answer uses unnecessary theorems. The result can be proved from definitions.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50




            $begingroup$
            I think this answer uses unnecessary theorems. The result can be proved from definitions.
            $endgroup$
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50











            2












            $begingroup$

            You can as well run through the definitions.
            Assume ${x_n+y_n}_{n=1}^{infty}subseteq M+N$ a Cauchy sequence then using $Mperp N$ gives
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m),x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m)rangle=langle x_n-x_m,x_n-x_mrangle +langle y_n-y_m,y_n-y_mranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $n,mrightarrowinfty$ from which You can conclude that ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy sequences and thus have limits $xin M$ and $yin N$ respectively since $M$ and $N$ are closed.
            Since for the considered sequences one has $langle x_n-x,x_n-xranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrow infty$ and $langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrowinfty$, You can conclude
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x+y),x_n+y_n-(x+y)rangle=langle x_n-x,x_n-xrangle +langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $nrightarrowinfty$ and thus $M+N$ is closed.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              True, just answered it myself below like 45 seconds ago! Thanks for the cross-validation! +1 anyway
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50


















            2












            $begingroup$

            You can as well run through the definitions.
            Assume ${x_n+y_n}_{n=1}^{infty}subseteq M+N$ a Cauchy sequence then using $Mperp N$ gives
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m),x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m)rangle=langle x_n-x_m,x_n-x_mrangle +langle y_n-y_m,y_n-y_mranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $n,mrightarrowinfty$ from which You can conclude that ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy sequences and thus have limits $xin M$ and $yin N$ respectively since $M$ and $N$ are closed.
            Since for the considered sequences one has $langle x_n-x,x_n-xranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrow infty$ and $langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrowinfty$, You can conclude
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x+y),x_n+y_n-(x+y)rangle=langle x_n-x,x_n-xrangle +langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $nrightarrowinfty$ and thus $M+N$ is closed.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              True, just answered it myself below like 45 seconds ago! Thanks for the cross-validation! +1 anyway
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50
















            2












            2








            2





            $begingroup$

            You can as well run through the definitions.
            Assume ${x_n+y_n}_{n=1}^{infty}subseteq M+N$ a Cauchy sequence then using $Mperp N$ gives
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m),x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m)rangle=langle x_n-x_m,x_n-x_mrangle +langle y_n-y_m,y_n-y_mranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $n,mrightarrowinfty$ from which You can conclude that ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy sequences and thus have limits $xin M$ and $yin N$ respectively since $M$ and $N$ are closed.
            Since for the considered sequences one has $langle x_n-x,x_n-xranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrow infty$ and $langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrowinfty$, You can conclude
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x+y),x_n+y_n-(x+y)rangle=langle x_n-x,x_n-xrangle +langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $nrightarrowinfty$ and thus $M+N$ is closed.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            You can as well run through the definitions.
            Assume ${x_n+y_n}_{n=1}^{infty}subseteq M+N$ a Cauchy sequence then using $Mperp N$ gives
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m),x_n+y_n-(x_m+y_m)rangle=langle x_n-x_m,x_n-x_mrangle +langle y_n-y_m,y_n-y_mranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $n,mrightarrowinfty$ from which You can conclude that ${x_n}$ and ${y_n}$ are Cauchy sequences and thus have limits $xin M$ and $yin N$ respectively since $M$ and $N$ are closed.
            Since for the considered sequences one has $langle x_n-x,x_n-xranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrow infty$ and $langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0,nrightarrowinfty$, You can conclude
            $$langle x_n+y_n-(x+y),x_n+y_n-(x+y)rangle=langle x_n-x,x_n-xrangle +langle y_n-y,y_n-yranglerightarrow 0$$
            as $nrightarrowinfty$ and thus $M+N$ is closed.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 2 '18 at 12:09

























            answered Dec 2 '18 at 11:49









            Peter MelechPeter Melech

            2,657813




            2,657813












            • $begingroup$
              True, just answered it myself below like 45 seconds ago! Thanks for the cross-validation! +1 anyway
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50




















            • $begingroup$
              True, just answered it myself below like 45 seconds ago! Thanks for the cross-validation! +1 anyway
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 2 '18 at 11:50


















            $begingroup$
            True, just answered it myself below like 45 seconds ago! Thanks for the cross-validation! +1 anyway
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50






            $begingroup$
            True, just answered it myself below like 45 seconds ago! Thanks for the cross-validation! +1 anyway
            $endgroup$
            – Rebellos
            Dec 2 '18 at 11:50













            1












            $begingroup$

            Worked around the following answer :



            Let $(z_n)$ be a convergent sequence in $M + N$. Then we can write $z_n = underbrace{x_n}_{in M} +underbrace{y_n}_{in N}$.



            But $M perp N $ we have $| z_n |^2 = |x_n |^2 +|y_n|^2$ by the Pythagoreian Theorem, since $langle x_n,y_nrangle = 0$ .



            Now, the sequence $(z_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, which means that :
            $$ |x_n -x_m|^2 +|y_n -y_m|^2 = | z_n -z_m|^2 rightarrow 0$$



            since $x_n to x$ and $ y_nto y$ for some $xin M $ , $y in N $ since they are both closed spaces . It then follows that $$lim z_n = z = x+y in N + M $$
            thus the space $N+M$ is a closed subspace of $H$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Worked around the following answer :



              Let $(z_n)$ be a convergent sequence in $M + N$. Then we can write $z_n = underbrace{x_n}_{in M} +underbrace{y_n}_{in N}$.



              But $M perp N $ we have $| z_n |^2 = |x_n |^2 +|y_n|^2$ by the Pythagoreian Theorem, since $langle x_n,y_nrangle = 0$ .



              Now, the sequence $(z_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, which means that :
              $$ |x_n -x_m|^2 +|y_n -y_m|^2 = | z_n -z_m|^2 rightarrow 0$$



              since $x_n to x$ and $ y_nto y$ for some $xin M $ , $y in N $ since they are both closed spaces . It then follows that $$lim z_n = z = x+y in N + M $$
              thus the space $N+M$ is a closed subspace of $H$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Worked around the following answer :



                Let $(z_n)$ be a convergent sequence in $M + N$. Then we can write $z_n = underbrace{x_n}_{in M} +underbrace{y_n}_{in N}$.



                But $M perp N $ we have $| z_n |^2 = |x_n |^2 +|y_n|^2$ by the Pythagoreian Theorem, since $langle x_n,y_nrangle = 0$ .



                Now, the sequence $(z_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, which means that :
                $$ |x_n -x_m|^2 +|y_n -y_m|^2 = | z_n -z_m|^2 rightarrow 0$$



                since $x_n to x$ and $ y_nto y$ for some $xin M $ , $y in N $ since they are both closed spaces . It then follows that $$lim z_n = z = x+y in N + M $$
                thus the space $N+M$ is a closed subspace of $H$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Worked around the following answer :



                Let $(z_n)$ be a convergent sequence in $M + N$. Then we can write $z_n = underbrace{x_n}_{in M} +underbrace{y_n}_{in N}$.



                But $M perp N $ we have $| z_n |^2 = |x_n |^2 +|y_n|^2$ by the Pythagoreian Theorem, since $langle x_n,y_nrangle = 0$ .



                Now, the sequence $(z_n)$ is a Cauchy sequence, which means that :
                $$ |x_n -x_m|^2 +|y_n -y_m|^2 = | z_n -z_m|^2 rightarrow 0$$



                since $x_n to x$ and $ y_nto y$ for some $xin M $ , $y in N $ since they are both closed spaces . It then follows that $$lim z_n = z = x+y in N + M $$
                thus the space $N+M$ is a closed subspace of $H$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 2 '18 at 11:49









                RebellosRebellos

                14.8k31248




                14.8k31248






























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