Integral solutions of polynomial [duplicate]












1












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This question already has an answer here:




  • integral roots for $f(x) = 41$ if $f(x) = 37$ has 5 distinct integral roots.

    2 answers




The equation
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=1, qquad a_nneq 0, qquad a_iinmathbb{Z}
$$

has $geq 4$ distinct integral solutions. How can I prove that
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=-1
$$

has no integral solution?










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marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
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Nov 23 '18 at 19:27


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • $begingroup$
    It does have an integral solution. Take x = 0 and a_0 = -1.
    $endgroup$
    – D.B.
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @D.B. but since $a_i$ are integral, you can not satisfy the first condition with $a_0=-1$
    $endgroup$
    – user285001
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:48
















1












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • integral roots for $f(x) = 41$ if $f(x) = 37$ has 5 distinct integral roots.

    2 answers




The equation
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=1, qquad a_nneq 0, qquad a_iinmathbb{Z}
$$

has $geq 4$ distinct integral solutions. How can I prove that
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=-1
$$

has no integral solution?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
Users with the  elementary-number-theory badge can single-handedly close elementary-number-theory questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed.

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Nov 23 '18 at 19:27


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • $begingroup$
    It does have an integral solution. Take x = 0 and a_0 = -1.
    $endgroup$
    – D.B.
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @D.B. but since $a_i$ are integral, you can not satisfy the first condition with $a_0=-1$
    $endgroup$
    – user285001
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:48














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • integral roots for $f(x) = 41$ if $f(x) = 37$ has 5 distinct integral roots.

    2 answers




The equation
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=1, qquad a_nneq 0, qquad a_iinmathbb{Z}
$$

has $geq 4$ distinct integral solutions. How can I prove that
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=-1
$$

has no integral solution?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • integral roots for $f(x) = 41$ if $f(x) = 37$ has 5 distinct integral roots.

    2 answers




The equation
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=1, qquad a_nneq 0, qquad a_iinmathbb{Z}
$$

has $geq 4$ distinct integral solutions. How can I prove that
$$
a_n x^n+dots+a_0=-1
$$

has no integral solution?





This question already has an answer here:




  • integral roots for $f(x) = 41$ if $f(x) = 37$ has 5 distinct integral roots.

    2 answers








elementary-number-theory polynomials






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 23 '18 at 18:49

























asked Nov 23 '18 at 18:42







user285001











marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
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Nov 23 '18 at 19:27


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
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Nov 23 '18 at 19:27


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    It does have an integral solution. Take x = 0 and a_0 = -1.
    $endgroup$
    – D.B.
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @D.B. but since $a_i$ are integral, you can not satisfy the first condition with $a_0=-1$
    $endgroup$
    – user285001
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:48


















  • $begingroup$
    It does have an integral solution. Take x = 0 and a_0 = -1.
    $endgroup$
    – D.B.
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:47








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @D.B. but since $a_i$ are integral, you can not satisfy the first condition with $a_0=-1$
    $endgroup$
    – user285001
    Nov 23 '18 at 18:48
















$begingroup$
It does have an integral solution. Take x = 0 and a_0 = -1.
$endgroup$
– D.B.
Nov 23 '18 at 18:47






$begingroup$
It does have an integral solution. Take x = 0 and a_0 = -1.
$endgroup$
– D.B.
Nov 23 '18 at 18:47






2




2




$begingroup$
@D.B. but since $a_i$ are integral, you can not satisfy the first condition with $a_0=-1$
$endgroup$
– user285001
Nov 23 '18 at 18:48




$begingroup$
@D.B. but since $a_i$ are integral, you can not satisfy the first condition with $a_0=-1$
$endgroup$
– user285001
Nov 23 '18 at 18:48










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

Hint:



Let $f(x)=sum_{k=0}^na_kx^k$. Suppose $p,q,r,s$ are four distinct integers such that $$f(p)=f(q)=f(r)=f(s)=1.$$
Then,
$$f(x)=(x-p)(x-q)(x-r)(x-s) ,,g(x)+1, quad text{where } g(x) text{ is some polynomial in } Bbb{Z}[x].$$
If $t in Bbb{Z}$ is such that $f(t)=-1$. Then,
$$f(t)=-1=(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)+1.$$
This is same as saying
$$(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)=-2$$
Observe that $t notin{p,q,r,s}$ and the left side is a product of integers. Can you now arrive at a contradiction?






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



















    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    Hint:



    Let $f(x)=sum_{k=0}^na_kx^k$. Suppose $p,q,r,s$ are four distinct integers such that $$f(p)=f(q)=f(r)=f(s)=1.$$
    Then,
    $$f(x)=(x-p)(x-q)(x-r)(x-s) ,,g(x)+1, quad text{where } g(x) text{ is some polynomial in } Bbb{Z}[x].$$
    If $t in Bbb{Z}$ is such that $f(t)=-1$. Then,
    $$f(t)=-1=(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)+1.$$
    This is same as saying
    $$(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)=-2$$
    Observe that $t notin{p,q,r,s}$ and the left side is a product of integers. Can you now arrive at a contradiction?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Hint:



      Let $f(x)=sum_{k=0}^na_kx^k$. Suppose $p,q,r,s$ are four distinct integers such that $$f(p)=f(q)=f(r)=f(s)=1.$$
      Then,
      $$f(x)=(x-p)(x-q)(x-r)(x-s) ,,g(x)+1, quad text{where } g(x) text{ is some polynomial in } Bbb{Z}[x].$$
      If $t in Bbb{Z}$ is such that $f(t)=-1$. Then,
      $$f(t)=-1=(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)+1.$$
      This is same as saying
      $$(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)=-2$$
      Observe that $t notin{p,q,r,s}$ and the left side is a product of integers. Can you now arrive at a contradiction?






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Hint:



        Let $f(x)=sum_{k=0}^na_kx^k$. Suppose $p,q,r,s$ are four distinct integers such that $$f(p)=f(q)=f(r)=f(s)=1.$$
        Then,
        $$f(x)=(x-p)(x-q)(x-r)(x-s) ,,g(x)+1, quad text{where } g(x) text{ is some polynomial in } Bbb{Z}[x].$$
        If $t in Bbb{Z}$ is such that $f(t)=-1$. Then,
        $$f(t)=-1=(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)+1.$$
        This is same as saying
        $$(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)=-2$$
        Observe that $t notin{p,q,r,s}$ and the left side is a product of integers. Can you now arrive at a contradiction?






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Hint:



        Let $f(x)=sum_{k=0}^na_kx^k$. Suppose $p,q,r,s$ are four distinct integers such that $$f(p)=f(q)=f(r)=f(s)=1.$$
        Then,
        $$f(x)=(x-p)(x-q)(x-r)(x-s) ,,g(x)+1, quad text{where } g(x) text{ is some polynomial in } Bbb{Z}[x].$$
        If $t in Bbb{Z}$ is such that $f(t)=-1$. Then,
        $$f(t)=-1=(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)+1.$$
        This is same as saying
        $$(t-p)(t-q)(t-r)(t-s) ,,g(t)=-2$$
        Observe that $t notin{p,q,r,s}$ and the left side is a product of integers. Can you now arrive at a contradiction?







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 23 '18 at 19:11









        Anurag AAnurag A

        25.8k12249




        25.8k12249















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