If $Q_kR_k$ converges to $QR$, where this represents their respective $QR$ decompositions, then $Q_k...












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Suppose $Q_kR_k rightarrow QR$ as $k rightarrow infty$, where $Q_k, Q$ are orthogonal matrices and $R_k, R$ are upper triangular with positive diagonal entries, then would the uniqueness of the $QR$ decomposition imply that $Q_k rightarrow Q$ and $R_k rightarrow R?$
I need this detail for a proof, but I wasn't able to prove it.



It would suffice to show that if $Q_kR_k rightarrow I$, then $Q_k rightarrow I$ and $R_k rightarrow I$.



Edit: If the limit of $Q_k$ and $R_k$ exist, then they must be $I$, but how would one show that these limits exist, if they do?










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    2












    $begingroup$


    Suppose $Q_kR_k rightarrow QR$ as $k rightarrow infty$, where $Q_k, Q$ are orthogonal matrices and $R_k, R$ are upper triangular with positive diagonal entries, then would the uniqueness of the $QR$ decomposition imply that $Q_k rightarrow Q$ and $R_k rightarrow R?$
    I need this detail for a proof, but I wasn't able to prove it.



    It would suffice to show that if $Q_kR_k rightarrow I$, then $Q_k rightarrow I$ and $R_k rightarrow I$.



    Edit: If the limit of $Q_k$ and $R_k$ exist, then they must be $I$, but how would one show that these limits exist, if they do?










    share|cite|improve this question











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      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Suppose $Q_kR_k rightarrow QR$ as $k rightarrow infty$, where $Q_k, Q$ are orthogonal matrices and $R_k, R$ are upper triangular with positive diagonal entries, then would the uniqueness of the $QR$ decomposition imply that $Q_k rightarrow Q$ and $R_k rightarrow R?$
      I need this detail for a proof, but I wasn't able to prove it.



      It would suffice to show that if $Q_kR_k rightarrow I$, then $Q_k rightarrow I$ and $R_k rightarrow I$.



      Edit: If the limit of $Q_k$ and $R_k$ exist, then they must be $I$, but how would one show that these limits exist, if they do?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose $Q_kR_k rightarrow QR$ as $k rightarrow infty$, where $Q_k, Q$ are orthogonal matrices and $R_k, R$ are upper triangular with positive diagonal entries, then would the uniqueness of the $QR$ decomposition imply that $Q_k rightarrow Q$ and $R_k rightarrow R?$
      I need this detail for a proof, but I wasn't able to prove it.



      It would suffice to show that if $Q_kR_k rightarrow I$, then $Q_k rightarrow I$ and $R_k rightarrow I$.



      Edit: If the limit of $Q_k$ and $R_k$ exist, then they must be $I$, but how would one show that these limits exist, if they do?







      matrices matrix-decomposition






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      edited Nov 25 '18 at 6:49







      Anu

















      asked Nov 25 '18 at 6:37









      AnuAnu

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          $begingroup$

          Since the $Q_k$ are orthogonal, they must be bounded, so we can apply Bolzano-Weierstrass. As you mentioned in your edit, any convergent subsequence would have to converge to $I$.



          If $Q_k$ does not converge to $I$, then we can take the subsequence of all $Q_k$ that are at least $epsilon$ away from $I$. Bolzano-Weierstrass then tells us there would be a subsequence that converges to something other than $I$, which leads to a contradiction.



          Convergence of $Q_k$ and $Q_kR_k$, along with invertibility of the $Q_k$, then implies convergence of the $R_k$.






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            $begingroup$

            Since the $Q_k$ are orthogonal, they must be bounded, so we can apply Bolzano-Weierstrass. As you mentioned in your edit, any convergent subsequence would have to converge to $I$.



            If $Q_k$ does not converge to $I$, then we can take the subsequence of all $Q_k$ that are at least $epsilon$ away from $I$. Bolzano-Weierstrass then tells us there would be a subsequence that converges to something other than $I$, which leads to a contradiction.



            Convergence of $Q_k$ and $Q_kR_k$, along with invertibility of the $Q_k$, then implies convergence of the $R_k$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Since the $Q_k$ are orthogonal, they must be bounded, so we can apply Bolzano-Weierstrass. As you mentioned in your edit, any convergent subsequence would have to converge to $I$.



              If $Q_k$ does not converge to $I$, then we can take the subsequence of all $Q_k$ that are at least $epsilon$ away from $I$. Bolzano-Weierstrass then tells us there would be a subsequence that converges to something other than $I$, which leads to a contradiction.



              Convergence of $Q_k$ and $Q_kR_k$, along with invertibility of the $Q_k$, then implies convergence of the $R_k$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Since the $Q_k$ are orthogonal, they must be bounded, so we can apply Bolzano-Weierstrass. As you mentioned in your edit, any convergent subsequence would have to converge to $I$.



                If $Q_k$ does not converge to $I$, then we can take the subsequence of all $Q_k$ that are at least $epsilon$ away from $I$. Bolzano-Weierstrass then tells us there would be a subsequence that converges to something other than $I$, which leads to a contradiction.



                Convergence of $Q_k$ and $Q_kR_k$, along with invertibility of the $Q_k$, then implies convergence of the $R_k$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Since the $Q_k$ are orthogonal, they must be bounded, so we can apply Bolzano-Weierstrass. As you mentioned in your edit, any convergent subsequence would have to converge to $I$.



                If $Q_k$ does not converge to $I$, then we can take the subsequence of all $Q_k$ that are at least $epsilon$ away from $I$. Bolzano-Weierstrass then tells us there would be a subsequence that converges to something other than $I$, which leads to a contradiction.



                Convergence of $Q_k$ and $Q_kR_k$, along with invertibility of the $Q_k$, then implies convergence of the $R_k$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 25 '18 at 9:54









                CarmeisterCarmeister

                2,7992923




                2,7992923






























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