Easier Ways to Find General Solutions of Higher Dimensional ODE's












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We have often used in the 2x2 case the Jordan form of the matrix A (2x2) in the system X' = AX, which yields a nice solution with standard basis vectors, which we transpose by the transformation matrix T to get back the original ODE's general solution (assuming invertible T).



Now with 3x3 and above, calculating the inverse matrix becomes prohibitively tedious, and I wanted to see if there is a faster way when there are repeated eigenvalues.



Example: A = ((0,0,1),(0,1,0),(1,0,0)), then the eigenvalues are -1, 1, 1, and clearly because x_2' = x_2 (the y component), x_2(t) = c_2 * e^t. I'm not sure what to do next; I know often we "guess" a solution for the components and check, but I'm stuck here...










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  • $begingroup$
    so then, is the solution just the same format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues? i.e. ae^-t(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0) ?
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:22
















0












$begingroup$


We have often used in the 2x2 case the Jordan form of the matrix A (2x2) in the system X' = AX, which yields a nice solution with standard basis vectors, which we transpose by the transformation matrix T to get back the original ODE's general solution (assuming invertible T).



Now with 3x3 and above, calculating the inverse matrix becomes prohibitively tedious, and I wanted to see if there is a faster way when there are repeated eigenvalues.



Example: A = ((0,0,1),(0,1,0),(1,0,0)), then the eigenvalues are -1, 1, 1, and clearly because x_2' = x_2 (the y component), x_2(t) = c_2 * e^t. I'm not sure what to do next; I know often we "guess" a solution for the components and check, but I'm stuck here...










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    so then, is the solution just the same format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues? i.e. ae^-t(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0) ?
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:22














0












0








0





$begingroup$


We have often used in the 2x2 case the Jordan form of the matrix A (2x2) in the system X' = AX, which yields a nice solution with standard basis vectors, which we transpose by the transformation matrix T to get back the original ODE's general solution (assuming invertible T).



Now with 3x3 and above, calculating the inverse matrix becomes prohibitively tedious, and I wanted to see if there is a faster way when there are repeated eigenvalues.



Example: A = ((0,0,1),(0,1,0),(1,0,0)), then the eigenvalues are -1, 1, 1, and clearly because x_2' = x_2 (the y component), x_2(t) = c_2 * e^t. I'm not sure what to do next; I know often we "guess" a solution for the components and check, but I'm stuck here...










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




We have often used in the 2x2 case the Jordan form of the matrix A (2x2) in the system X' = AX, which yields a nice solution with standard basis vectors, which we transpose by the transformation matrix T to get back the original ODE's general solution (assuming invertible T).



Now with 3x3 and above, calculating the inverse matrix becomes prohibitively tedious, and I wanted to see if there is a faster way when there are repeated eigenvalues.



Example: A = ((0,0,1),(0,1,0),(1,0,0)), then the eigenvalues are -1, 1, 1, and clearly because x_2' = x_2 (the y component), x_2(t) = c_2 * e^t. I'm not sure what to do next; I know often we "guess" a solution for the components and check, but I'm stuck here...







ordinary-differential-equations






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asked Nov 25 '18 at 5:16









MathGuyForLifeMathGuyForLife

1007




1007












  • $begingroup$
    so then, is the solution just the same format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues? i.e. ae^-t(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0) ?
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:22


















  • $begingroup$
    so then, is the solution just the same format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues? i.e. ae^-t(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0) ?
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:22
















$begingroup$
so then, is the solution just the same format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues? i.e. ae^-t(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0) ?
$endgroup$
– MathGuyForLife
Nov 25 '18 at 5:22




$begingroup$
so then, is the solution just the same format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues? i.e. ae^-t(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0) ?
$endgroup$
– MathGuyForLife
Nov 25 '18 at 5:22










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

I'll just post what Moo explained above. The solution is similar format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues, because the eigenvectors are linearly independent.



$$ae^{-t}(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0)$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you, edited.
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:41











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

I'll just post what Moo explained above. The solution is similar format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues, because the eigenvectors are linearly independent.



$$ae^{-t}(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0)$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you, edited.
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:41
















0












$begingroup$

I'll just post what Moo explained above. The solution is similar format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues, because the eigenvectors are linearly independent.



$$ae^{-t}(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0)$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you, edited.
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:41














0












0








0





$begingroup$

I'll just post what Moo explained above. The solution is similar format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues, because the eigenvectors are linearly independent.



$$ae^{-t}(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0)$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



I'll just post what Moo explained above. The solution is similar format as in the case of 3 distinct eigenvalues, because the eigenvectors are linearly independent.



$$ae^{-t}(-1,0,1)+be^t(1,0,1)+ce^t(0,1,0)$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 25 '18 at 5:41

























answered Nov 25 '18 at 5:29









MathGuyForLifeMathGuyForLife

1007




1007








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you, edited.
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:41














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you, edited.
    $endgroup$
    – MathGuyForLife
    Nov 25 '18 at 5:41








1




1




$begingroup$
Thank you, edited.
$endgroup$
– MathGuyForLife
Nov 25 '18 at 5:41




$begingroup$
Thank you, edited.
$endgroup$
– MathGuyForLife
Nov 25 '18 at 5:41


















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