A sufficient (?) condition under which a linear order is order-isomorphic to a subset of the real line











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Let $(mathbb{X},<)$ be a linear order. Assume that there exists $g:mathbb{X} times mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for each fixed $x<x'$ the function $y mapsto g(x,y)-g(x',y)$ is a strictly increasing bijection of $mathbb{R}$ onto itself.



I am trying to prove (or disprove) that then $(mathbb{X},<)$ is necessarily order-isomorphic to a subset of $mathbb{R}$ with the usual order. That is, there exists a strictly increasing function $f:mathbb{X} rightarrow mathbb{R}$.



Thank you.










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  • Do you know that every finite or countably infinite linear ordering is order isomorphic to a subset of the rationals? I haven't given much thought to your actual question, so if this result is well known to you and doesn't seem relevant, then ignore my comment.
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Nov 16 at 18:15












  • Is it even straightforward that $|X|le|Bbb R|$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 16 at 18:17










  • @DaveL.Renfro, thank you. Yes, I know this fact, but I don't know how to use it to prove (or disprove) the statement of interest.
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 18:54

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1












Let $(mathbb{X},<)$ be a linear order. Assume that there exists $g:mathbb{X} times mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for each fixed $x<x'$ the function $y mapsto g(x,y)-g(x',y)$ is a strictly increasing bijection of $mathbb{R}$ onto itself.



I am trying to prove (or disprove) that then $(mathbb{X},<)$ is necessarily order-isomorphic to a subset of $mathbb{R}$ with the usual order. That is, there exists a strictly increasing function $f:mathbb{X} rightarrow mathbb{R}$.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Do you know that every finite or countably infinite linear ordering is order isomorphic to a subset of the rationals? I haven't given much thought to your actual question, so if this result is well known to you and doesn't seem relevant, then ignore my comment.
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Nov 16 at 18:15












  • Is it even straightforward that $|X|le|Bbb R|$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 16 at 18:17










  • @DaveL.Renfro, thank you. Yes, I know this fact, but I don't know how to use it to prove (or disprove) the statement of interest.
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 18:54















up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
0
down vote

favorite
1






1





Let $(mathbb{X},<)$ be a linear order. Assume that there exists $g:mathbb{X} times mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for each fixed $x<x'$ the function $y mapsto g(x,y)-g(x',y)$ is a strictly increasing bijection of $mathbb{R}$ onto itself.



I am trying to prove (or disprove) that then $(mathbb{X},<)$ is necessarily order-isomorphic to a subset of $mathbb{R}$ with the usual order. That is, there exists a strictly increasing function $f:mathbb{X} rightarrow mathbb{R}$.



Thank you.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $(mathbb{X},<)$ be a linear order. Assume that there exists $g:mathbb{X} times mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that for each fixed $x<x'$ the function $y mapsto g(x,y)-g(x',y)$ is a strictly increasing bijection of $mathbb{R}$ onto itself.



I am trying to prove (or disprove) that then $(mathbb{X},<)$ is necessarily order-isomorphic to a subset of $mathbb{R}$ with the usual order. That is, there exists a strictly increasing function $f:mathbb{X} rightarrow mathbb{R}$.



Thank you.







order-theory






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edited Nov 16 at 18:07

























asked Nov 16 at 17:31









Mikhail

605




605












  • Do you know that every finite or countably infinite linear ordering is order isomorphic to a subset of the rationals? I haven't given much thought to your actual question, so if this result is well known to you and doesn't seem relevant, then ignore my comment.
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Nov 16 at 18:15












  • Is it even straightforward that $|X|le|Bbb R|$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 16 at 18:17










  • @DaveL.Renfro, thank you. Yes, I know this fact, but I don't know how to use it to prove (or disprove) the statement of interest.
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 18:54




















  • Do you know that every finite or countably infinite linear ordering is order isomorphic to a subset of the rationals? I haven't given much thought to your actual question, so if this result is well known to you and doesn't seem relevant, then ignore my comment.
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Nov 16 at 18:15












  • Is it even straightforward that $|X|le|Bbb R|$?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 16 at 18:17










  • @DaveL.Renfro, thank you. Yes, I know this fact, but I don't know how to use it to prove (or disprove) the statement of interest.
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 18:54


















Do you know that every finite or countably infinite linear ordering is order isomorphic to a subset of the rationals? I haven't given much thought to your actual question, so if this result is well known to you and doesn't seem relevant, then ignore my comment.
– Dave L. Renfro
Nov 16 at 18:15






Do you know that every finite or countably infinite linear ordering is order isomorphic to a subset of the rationals? I haven't given much thought to your actual question, so if this result is well known to you and doesn't seem relevant, then ignore my comment.
– Dave L. Renfro
Nov 16 at 18:15














Is it even straightforward that $|X|le|Bbb R|$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 16 at 18:17




Is it even straightforward that $|X|le|Bbb R|$?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 16 at 18:17












@DaveL.Renfro, thank you. Yes, I know this fact, but I don't know how to use it to prove (or disprove) the statement of interest.
– Mikhail
Nov 16 at 18:54






@DaveL.Renfro, thank you. Yes, I know this fact, but I don't know how to use it to prove (or disprove) the statement of interest.
– Mikhail
Nov 16 at 18:54












1 Answer
1






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up vote
2
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accepted










Define $FcolonBbb Xto Bbb R$ as
$$F(x)=g(x,0)-g(x,1).$$



Claim. Then $x<x'$ implies $F(x)<F(x')$.



Proof.
Let $h(y)=g(x,y)-g(x',y)$. We are given that $hcolonBbb RtoBbb R$ is strictly increasing.
Now we have $$F(x')-F(x)=g(x',0)-g(x',1)-g(x,0)+g(x,1)=h(1)-h(0)>0$$
as desired. $square$






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  • Great! Thank you very much!
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 21:00













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Define $FcolonBbb Xto Bbb R$ as
$$F(x)=g(x,0)-g(x,1).$$



Claim. Then $x<x'$ implies $F(x)<F(x')$.



Proof.
Let $h(y)=g(x,y)-g(x',y)$. We are given that $hcolonBbb RtoBbb R$ is strictly increasing.
Now we have $$F(x')-F(x)=g(x',0)-g(x',1)-g(x,0)+g(x,1)=h(1)-h(0)>0$$
as desired. $square$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Great! Thank you very much!
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 21:00

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Define $FcolonBbb Xto Bbb R$ as
$$F(x)=g(x,0)-g(x,1).$$



Claim. Then $x<x'$ implies $F(x)<F(x')$.



Proof.
Let $h(y)=g(x,y)-g(x',y)$. We are given that $hcolonBbb RtoBbb R$ is strictly increasing.
Now we have $$F(x')-F(x)=g(x',0)-g(x',1)-g(x,0)+g(x,1)=h(1)-h(0)>0$$
as desired. $square$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Great! Thank you very much!
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 21:00















up vote
2
down vote



accepted







up vote
2
down vote



accepted






Define $FcolonBbb Xto Bbb R$ as
$$F(x)=g(x,0)-g(x,1).$$



Claim. Then $x<x'$ implies $F(x)<F(x')$.



Proof.
Let $h(y)=g(x,y)-g(x',y)$. We are given that $hcolonBbb RtoBbb R$ is strictly increasing.
Now we have $$F(x')-F(x)=g(x',0)-g(x',1)-g(x,0)+g(x,1)=h(1)-h(0)>0$$
as desired. $square$






share|cite|improve this answer












Define $FcolonBbb Xto Bbb R$ as
$$F(x)=g(x,0)-g(x,1).$$



Claim. Then $x<x'$ implies $F(x)<F(x')$.



Proof.
Let $h(y)=g(x,y)-g(x',y)$. We are given that $hcolonBbb RtoBbb R$ is strictly increasing.
Now we have $$F(x')-F(x)=g(x',0)-g(x',1)-g(x,0)+g(x,1)=h(1)-h(0)>0$$
as desired. $square$







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answered Nov 16 at 20:50









Hagen von Eitzen

275k21266494




275k21266494












  • Great! Thank you very much!
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 21:00




















  • Great! Thank you very much!
    – Mikhail
    Nov 16 at 21:00


















Great! Thank you very much!
– Mikhail
Nov 16 at 21:00






Great! Thank you very much!
– Mikhail
Nov 16 at 21:00




















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